PHARMACEUTICS
51. A characteristic of drugs eliminated by zero order kinetic processes is that the halflife is not constant.
A. True
B. False
52. The plasma drug concentration versus time curve for a drug eliminated by zero order kinetics is linear.
A. True
B. False
53. Drug metabolism is the process that converts chemicals into less polar metabolites so that they are more difficult to excrete. A.
A. True
B. False
54. All of the following are examples of phase 1 drug metabolizing reactions EXCEPT:
a. N-dealkylation of theophylline
b. Aliphatic oxidation of pentobarbital
c. Hydrolysis of succinylcholine
d. Glucuronidation of acetaminophen
55. The termination of action of the preanesthetic muscle relaxant, succinylcholine, is markedly affected by:
A. redistribution from the brain to the adipose
B. enzyme induction
C. enzyme inhibition
d. Pharmacogenetic factors
56. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be associated with a high apparent volume of distribution?
A. High hepatic extraction ratio
B. Extensive binding to plasma protein
C. Distribution into total body water
D. Extensive binding to tissue constituents
57. For a normal sized adult, the hepatic clearance of a drug whose metabolism is limited by the rate of blood flow to the liver would be:
A. 60 milliliters/min
B. 120 milliliters/min
c. I650 milliliters/min
D. 1500 milliliters/min
58. For a drug that is eliminated primarily by renal glomerular filtration, the theoretical maximum clearance is approximately:
a. 1-2 milliliters/min
B. 12 milliliters/min
C. 120 milliliters/min
D. 1250 milliliters/min
59. The volume of distribution of gentamicin, a highly polar water-soluble drug, is 14 L per 70 kg. This reflects the distribution of gentamicin into:
a. Plasma
b. Plasma and Blood
c. Plasma, blood, and interstitial fluid (extracellular water)
d. Total body water
e. Adipose tissue
60. For a drug eliminated by first order kinetics, the time required for continuous intravenous administration to achieve the steady state plasma drug concentration depends on the rate of drug administration.
A. True
B. False
61. The half-life of a drug eliminated by first order elimination kinetics will be LONGER in individuals who have an:
A. increased volume of distribution or increased clearance
B. increased volume of distribution or decreased clearance
C. decreased volume of distribution or increased clearance
D. decreased volume of distribution or decreased clearance
Questions 62-65 concerning the calculation of
dosing regimens for Drug X may require the
following data.
F = 0.90
Bound in plasma=56%
Clearance=2.9 liters/hr/70kg (constant)
Volume of distribution=35 liters/70kg
Half-life=8.1 hr
Effective concentration = 20
micrograms/milliliter
Toxic concentration=30 micrograms/milliliter
22. A 57-year old adult male (70 kg) who recently suffered a myocardial infarction presents in the ER with acute ventricular arrhythmias. The physician orders a loading dose of Drug X to be followed by continuous intravenous dosing to maintain plasma levels of Drug X at an effective concentration. The correct loading dose of this drug to administer would be:
A. 70 micrograms
B. 700 micrograms (0.7 milligrams)
C. 7000 micrograms (7 milligrams)
D. 70,000 micrograms (70 milligrams)
E. 700,000 micrograms (700 milligrams)
63. The intravenous dosing rate necessary to maintain plasma drug levels at 20 micrograms/milliliter is:
A. 58 milligrams/hour
B. 116 milligrams/hour
C. 174 milligrams/hour
D. 232 milligrams/hour
64. If a loading dose were not administered, the time required to reach the target plasma level of 20 micrograms/milliliter would be approximately:
a. 8-12 hours
b. 16-20 hours
c. 32-40 hours
d. 80-120 hours
65. After the patient is discharged, the ORAL MAINTENANCE dose given every 6 hours (dosing interval = 6 hours) necessary to maintain plasma drug levels at 20 micrograms/milliliter is:
a. 270 milligrams
b. 309 milligrams
c. 348 milligrams
d. 387 milligrams
66. The study of the unwanted or deleterious effects of drugs or chemicals on the body is called:
A. Pharmacotherapeutics
B. Toxicology
C. biotechnology
D. None
67. Classical drug-receptor theory states that drug action is mediated by the formation of drug-receptor complexes. In the absence of spare receptors, this predicts that the concentration of a drug that leads to 25% of maximal receptor binding will also produce 25% of the maximal response. The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
68. Displacement binding assays can be used to assess whether a drug has affinity for a specific receptor. The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
69. Concerning drug-plasma protein binding:
A) A relatively small percentage of drugs are bound to some extent to plasma proteins
B) Drug-plasma albumin binding is often highly selective
C) An example of a plasma protein important for drug binding is alpha1-acidic glycoprotein
D) Volume of distribution is generally unrelated to protein binding
70. Which of the following is not associated with activation of a receptor coupled to the adenylate cyclase/cAMP pathway:
a. activation of protein kinase A
b. enzymatic conversion of ATP
c. hydrolysis of GDP TRUE
d. increased production of cAMP
71. The maximal efficacy of a drug can be mathematically defined on a dose-response graph as the EC50 value. The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
72. In a saturation binding assay, the amount of specific binding is determined indirectly by subtracting the amount of total binding from the amount of non-specific binding The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
73. Assume that a cell expresses 100 receptors on its surface and that binding of 40 of these receptors by a drug are required to achieve a maximal biological response. How many receptors would have to be removed or irreversibly antagonized on this cell before you would observe a change in the maximal response to the drug (assume that you can add as much drug to the cell as you want to induce the biological response):
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 50
e. 80
74. Using the formula that describes the relationship between the concentration of a drug and the response it produces, calculate the percent of Emax that would occur at a drug concentration of 10 mg if the EC50 value for the drug is 40 mg:
a. 50%
b. 99%
c. 20%
d. 10%
e. 4%
75. Using the figure shown below, which curve best describes a drug that is a high affinity partial agonist.
a. Curve A
b. Curve B
c. Curve C
d. Curve D
76. Growth factor receptors such as those for EGF contain both an extracellular recognition domain and an intracellular enzymatic domain that catalyzes the phosphorylation of target proteins on serine and threonine amino acids The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
77. The major mechanism of drug transport involved in the transport of drug out of the blood into tissues is:
a. Aqueous diffusion
b. Lipid diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Facilitated transport
78. Activation of membrane phopholipase C following activation of a1l receptors leads to cleavage of the membrane phospholipid PIP2 and liberation of the second messengers IP3 and diacylglycerol (DAG) The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
79. Drugs that produce their effects by binding to specific receptors can be classifed as agonists, antagonists, or partial agonists. Current theory suggests that receptors “cycle” between inactive and active states and that drugs shift this equilibrium. In this model, which of the following statements is false.
a. Agonists have higher affinity for the active state
b. Partial agonists have equal affinity for the active and inactive state
c. Antagonists have higher affinity for the inactive state
d. Competitive antagonists have low affinity for the active state
e. Irreversible antagonists have low affinity for the inactive state
80. Quantal dose response curves are useful since they tell us something about the relationship between therapeutic and adverse effects of a particular drug. A drug with a therapeutic index of 1000 would have which of the following characteristics:
a. ED50 of 1 mg; TD 50 of 10 mg
b. TD50 of 50 mg, ED50 of 5 mg
c. ED50 of 0.1 mg, TD50 of 100 mg
d. TD50 of 250 mg, ED50 of 0.025 mg
e. ED50 of 0.1 mg, TD 50 of 5 mg
81. Concerning drug-plasma protein binding:
A) A relatively small percentage of drugs are bound to some extent to plasma proteins
B) Drug-plasma albumin binding is often highly selective
C) An example of a plasma protein important for drug binding is alpha1-acidic glycoprotein
D) Volume of distribution is generally unrelated to protein binding
82. In a displacement binding assay, the concentration of radioactive (“hot”) drug is constant in each tube and the concentration of non-radioactive (“cold”) drug is varied: The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
83. The presence of a fixed concentration of a competitive antagonist results in a rightward and downward shift in the agonist doseresponse curve resulting in a higher EC50 value and a lower maximal effect: The given sentence is?
A. true
B. false
84. The function of the HSP90 protein in cellular signaling is most accurately defined by which statement listed below:
a. Inhibition of adenylate cylcase upon b1 receptor activation
b. Catalyzes hydrolysis of GTP to GDP and inactivation of Gsa
c. Prevents folding of the steroid receptor in the absence of steroid
d. Facilitates dimerization of EGF receptors after receptor binding
85. Drug having high solubility and high permeability comes under which BCS class?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
86. Drug having low solubility and high permeability comes under which BCS class?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
87. Drug having high solubility and low permeability comes under which BCS class?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
88. Drug having low solubility and low permeability comes under which BCS class?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
89. DANCKWERT’S MODEL or Surface renewal theory associate with?
A. Drug dissolution B. Filtration
C. Surface tension D. Sedimentation
90. The given below equation describe the?
A. Fick’s fist low of diffusion
B. Noyes Whitney’s equation
C. Plank’s equation
D. None of this
91. The given below equation describe the?
A. Fick’s fist low of diffusion
B. Noyes Whitney’s equation
C. Plank’s equation
D. None of this
92. ATENOLOL comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
93. NIFEDIPINE comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
94. Amphotericin-B comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
95. Glipizide comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
96. Ciprofloxacin comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
97. Tamoxifen comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
98. Captopril comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
99. Azithromycin comes under?
A. BCS CLASS I
B. BCS CLASS II
C. BCS CLASS III
D. BCS CLASS IV
100. This formula shows which of these?
A. Absolute bioavailability
B. Relative bioavailability
C. Fraction Absolute bioavailability
D. Fraction Relative bioavailability
