General Pharmacology MCQs
1. Which of the following reaction is not involved in detoxification of drugs ?
a. Cytochrome oxidase
b. Cytochrome P450
c. Methylation
d. Sulfate conjugation
2. ED50 is a measure of :
a. Toxicity
b. Safety
c. Potency
d. Efficacy
3. Therapeutic index for a drug is a measure of :
a. Safety
b. Potency
c. Efficacy
d. Toxicity
4. Phase II drug trials are done to find :
a. Efficacy
b. Lethal dose
c. Maximal tolerated dose
d. Safety index
5. Forced Alkaline Diuresis of Alkanization of urine is used in Poisoning with :
a. Barbiturates
b. Amphetamina
c. Alcohol
d. Datura
6. G6PD enzyme deficiency does not cause hemoly- sis in treatment with :
a. Quinine
b. Pyrimethamine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine
7. Which one of the following antiplatelet is a prodrug:
a. Aspirin
b. Dipyridamole
c. Ticlopidine
d. Abciximab
8. In unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, the risk of kernicterus increases with the use of :
a. Ceftriaxone
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Ampicillin
d. Sulphonamide
9. A highly ionized drug :
a. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
b. Can cross the placenta easily
c. Is well absorbed from the intestine
d. Accumulates in the lipids
10. In which of the following phases of clinical trial of drug ethical clearance is not required?
a. Phase I
b. Phase II
c. Phase III
d. Phase IV
11. The extent to which ionisation of a drug takes place is dependent upon pKa of the drug and the pH of the solution in which the drug is dissolved. Which of the following statements is not correct :
a. pKa of a drug is the pH at which the drug is 50% ionized
b. Small changes of pH near the pKa of a weak acidic drug will not affect its degree of ionization
c. Knowledge of pKa of a drug is useful in predict- ing its behaviour in various body fluids
d. Phenobarbitone with a pKa of 7.2 is largely ion- ized at acid pH and will be about 40% nonionised in plasma
12. Presence of food might be expected to interfere with drug absorption by slowing gastric empty- ing. or by altering the degree of ionisation of the drug in the stomach. Which of the following state- ments is not correct example :
a. Absorption of digoxin is delayed by the presence of food
b. Concurrent food intake may severely reduce the rate of absorption of phenytion
c. Presence of food enhances the absorption of hydrochlorthiazide
d. Antimalarial drug halofantrine is more extensively absorbed if taken with food
13. All of the following statements regarding bioavailability of a drug are true except :
a. It is the proportion (fraction) of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation
b. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the Area Under Curve (0-α. after oral and intravenous(iv) administration
c. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption
d. Bioavaialabilty can be determined from plasma concentration or urinary excretion data
14. Regarding efficacy and potency of a drug, all are true, except :
a. In a clinical setup, efficacy is more important than potency
b. In the log dose response curve, the height of the curve corresponds with efficacy
c. ED50 of the drug corresponds to efficacy
d. Drugs that produce a similar pharmacological effect can have different levels of efficacy
15. True statement regarding first order kinetics is :
a. Independent of plasma concentration
b. A constant proportion of plasma concentration is eliminated
c. T ½ increases with dose
d. Clearance decreases with dose
16. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in eld-erly except :
a. They are lean and their body mass is less
b. Have decreasing renal function with age
c. Have increased baroceptor sensitivity
d. Body water is decreased
17. True statement regarding inverse agonists is :
a. Binds to receptor and causes intended action
b. Binds to receptor and causes opposite action
c. Bind to receptor and causes no action
d. Bind to receptor and causes submaximal
18. All are pharmacogenetic conditions, except :
a. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
b. Malignant hyper-pyrexia
c. Coumarin insensitivity
d. G6PD deficiency
19. Which of the following is true :
a. As the concentration of drug increases over the therapeutic range, the bound form of the drug increases
b. The bound form is not available for metabolism but is available for excretion
c. Acidic drug binds to albumin; and basic drug binds β globulin
d. Binding sites are non-specific and one drug can displace the other
20. True about teratogenicity of a drug is all except :
a. It is genetically predetermined
b. Environment influences it
c. Related to the dose of the teratogenic drug
d. Affects specially at a particular phase of devel- opment of foetus
21. Which of the following is not an example of cyto- chrome p450 dehydrogenase inducer :
a. Phenobarbitone
b. Rifampicin
c. Phenytoin
d. Ketoconazole
22. Drug, which is contraindicated in pregnancy is:
a. Tetracycline
b. Erythromycin
c. Ampicillin
d. Chloroquine
23. Which drug is not acetylated ?
a. NH
b. Dapsone
c . Hydralazine
d. Metoclopropamide
24. Which is a prodrug ?
- a. Enalapril
- c. Captopril
- b. Clonidine
- d. Lisinopril
25. Loading dose depends on :
a. Volume of distribution
b. Clearance
c. Rate of administration
d. Half life
26. Which is CPY P450 inhibitor ?
a. Ketoconazole
b. Rifampicin
c. Phenytoin
d. INH
27. Therapeutic monitoring is done for all of the fol- lowing except :
a. Tacrolimus
b. Metformin
c. Cyclosporine
d. Phenytoin
28. Good clinical practices (GCPs) are not a part of :
a. Preclinical studies
b. Phae I studies
c. Phase II studies
d. Phase IV studies
29. The following are contraindicated in pregnancy except :
a. Sodium nitroprusside
b. Labetalol
c. Spironolactone
d. ACE inhibitors
30. The following drug is contraindicated in pregnancy:
a. ACE inhibitor
b. Calcium channel blocker
c. Beta blocker
d. Penicillin
31. Maternal carbimazole intake causes all except :
a. Choanal atresia
b. Cleft lip and cleft palate
c. Fetal goitre
d. Scalp defects
32. Loading dose depends on :
a. Half life
b. Plasma volume
c. Volume of distribution
d. Rate of clearance
33. Which of the following is a prodrug ?
a. Clonidine
b. Enalapril
c. Salmeterol
d. Acetazolamide
34. Drugs undergoing acetylation include except :
a. Dapsone
b. Metoclopramide
c. Procainamide
d. INH
35. Side effects of a drug arise due to the interactions of the drug of molecules other than the target. These effects of a drug can be minimized by its high :
a. Specificity
b. Affinity
c. Solubility
d. Hydrophobicity
36. Which of the following property of drug will enable it to be used in low concentrations :
a. High affinity
b. High specificity
c. Low specificity
d. High stability
37. Which of the following drugs can be safely pre- scribed in pregnancy ?
a. Warfarin
b. ACE inhibitors
c. Heparin
d. β – blockers
38. Km of an enzyme is :
a. Dissociation constant
b. The normal physiological substrate concentra- tion
c. The substrate concentration at half maximal ve- locity
d. Numerically identical for all isozymes that cata- lyze a given reaction
39. For drugs with first order kinetics the time required to achieve steady state levels can be predicted from :
a. Volume of distribution
b. Half life
c. Clearance
d. Loading dose
40. All of the following drugs are metabolised by acetylation except :
a. INH
b. Sulfonamides
c. Ketoconazole
c. Hydralazine
41. The lymphocytopenia seen a few hours after ad- ministration of a large dose of prednisone to a patient with lymphocytic leukemia is due to :
a. Massive lymphocytic apoptosis
b. Bone marrow depression
c. Activation of cytotoxic cells
d. Stimulation of natural killer cell activity
42. The substrate concentration used for determin- ing the activity of an enzyme having Km=x μm will be:
a. 2xμm
b. 4xμm
c. 8xμm
d. 10xμm
43. Racemic mixture of two enantiomers with different pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic prop- erties is seen in :
a. Dilantin
b. Digoxin
c. Verapamil
d. Octreotide
44. A drug is more likely to cause toxicity in elderly patients due to all of the following reasons except:
a. Decreased renal excretion of drugs
b. Decreased hepatic metabolism
c. Increased receptor sensitivity
d. Decreased volume of distribution
45. Which of the following can be given with dose adjustment :
a. Levodopa + metoclopramide
b. Gentamicin + Furosemide
c. Ferrous sulphate + Tetracycline
d. Clonidine + Chlorpromazine
46. Alcohol intake during pregnancy causes, all, except :
a. Brachycephaly
b. Microcephaly
c. Hyperkinetic movements
d. Congenital anomalies
47. New drug study and development can be done by:
a. Pharmacogenetics
b. Molecular modelling
c. Pharmacolibrary
d. Neopharmacy
48. Concentration of a drug in blood is 40 microgm/ ml. Dose of the drug is 200mg. Volume of distribution of the drug assuming minute elimination is :
a. 5 litre
b. 0.5 litre
c. 2.5 litre
d. 3 litre
49. All of the followings can cause hemolytic anaemia except :
a. Isoniazid
b. Rifampicin
c. Co – trimoxazole
d. Propranolol
50. A drug X has affinity to bind with albumin and Y has 150 times more affinity to bind with albumin than X. TRUE statement is :
a. Drug X will available more in tissues
b. Drug Y will be more available in tissues
c. Free conc. of drug X in blood will be more
d. Toxicity of Y will be more
Answers
- a. Cytochrome …
- c. Potency
- a. Safety
- a. Efficacy
- a. Barbiturates
- b. Pyrimethamine
- c. Ticlopidine
- d. Sulphonamide
- a. Is excreted …
- d. Phase IV
- b. Small changes …
- c. Presence of…
- c. Low oral
- c. ED50 of …
- b. A constant …
- c. Have …
- b. Binds …
- a. Adenosine …
- d. Binding …
- a. It is genetically …
- d. Ketocon …
- a. Tetracycline
- d. Metoclopropa …
- a. Enalapril
- a. Volume …
- a. Ketoconazole
- b. Metformin
- a. Preclinical …
- b. Labetalol
- a. ACE …
- b. Cleft …
- c. Volume …
- b. Enalapril
- b. Metoclopra …
- a. Specificity
- a. High …
- c. Heparin
- c. The substrate …
- b. Half life
- c. Ketoconazole
- a. Massive …
- a. 2xμm
- c. Verapamil
- d. Decreased …
- c. Ferrous …
- a. Brachycephaly
- b. Molecular …
- a. 5 litre
- d. Propranolol
- a. Drug X …
