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pharmacy Topic wise MCQs

Hematology MCQ’s ( Disorders of granulocytes & monocytes )

Hematology MCQ’s ( Disorders of granulocytes & monocytes )

173 Which of the following is a leukocyte ?
A. Natural killer (NK) cell
B. B lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Leukocytes include neutrophils, T and B lymphocytes, natural killer (NK) cells, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils.

174 Which of the following statements about leukocytes is false ?
A. Derived from common stem cell in bone marrow
B. Threefourths of nucleated cells of bone marrow are committed to leukocyte production
C. Their maturation in marrow is regulated by colonystimulating factors & interleukins
D. None of the above
Explanation:- Leukocytes are derived from a common stem cell in bone marrow. Three-fourths of nucleated cells of bone marrow are committed to production of leukocytes. Leukocyte maturation in the marrow is under the regulatory control of colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) & interleukins (ILs).

175 Minimum number of stem cells necessary to support hematopoiesis is ?
A. 100 to 200
B. 200 to 300
C. 300 to 400
D. 400 to 500
Explanation:- Minimum number of stem cells necessary to support hematopoiesis is 400 – 500 at any one time.

176 Colony-stimulating factors are produced by ?
A. Monocytes
B. Tissue macrophages
C. Stromal cells
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Human blood monocytes, tissue macrophages & stromal cells produce CSFs, hormones required for growth of monocytes & neutrophils in bone marrow.

177 In a 80 kg person, how many neutrophils are produced by hematopoietic system per day ?
A. ~ 0.3 x 1011
B. ~ 1.3 x 1011
C. ~ 2.3 x 1011
D. ~ 3.3 x 1011
Explanation:- In a 80 kg person, ~1.3 x 1011 neutrophils are produced by hematopoietic system per day.

178 Maturation from metamyelocyte to neutrophil takes how many days ?
A. 2 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days
Explanation:- Proliferation phase through the metamyelocyte takes ~1 week, while maturation phase from metamyelocyte to mature neutrophil takes ~1 week.

179 Which of the following is the largest cell in size ?
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte

180 Primary or azurophil granules are present in ?
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Classic lysosomal granules called the primary or azurophil granules are found in promyelocyte.

181 Primary or azurophil granules contain ?
A. Hydrolases
B. Cathepsin G
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Primary granules contain hydrolases, elastase, myeloperoxidase, cathepsin G, cationic proteins, bactericidal/permeability-increasing protein & defensins.

182 Which of the following azurophil granules has broad antimicrobial activity against bacteria, fungi & certain enveloped viruses ?
A. Hydrolases
B. Cathepsin G
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. Defensins
Explanation:- Defensins in azurophil granules have a broad antimicrobial activity against bacteria, fungi, and certain enveloped viruses.

183 Specific or secondary granules are present in ?
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. All of the above

184 Secondary granules contain all except ?
A. Acid hydrolases
B. Lactoferrin
C. Vitamin B12 binding protein
D. Histaminase
Explanation:- Myelocyte synthesises specific or secondary granules which contains lactoferrin, vitamin B12 binding protein, membrane components of reduced nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase, histaminase, and laminin. Secondary granules do not contain acid hydrolases.

185 Packaging of secondary granule contents during myelopoiesis is controlled by ?
A. CCAAT/enhancer binding protein-
B. CCAAT/enhancer binding protein-
C. CCAAT/enhancer binding protein-
D. CCAAT/enhancer binding protein-
Explanation:- Packaging of secondary granule contents during myelopoiesis is controlled by CCAAT/enhancer binding protein-.

186 Excessive segmentation of nucleus of neutrophils is a manifestation of ?
A. Folate or vitamin B12 deficiency
B. Iron deficiency
C. Thalassemia
D. Repeated blood transfusion
Explanation:- Nucleus of neutrophils normally contains up to four segments. Excessive segmentation (>5 nuclear lobes) is seen in folate or vitamin B12 deficiency & congenital neutropenia syndrome of warts, hypogammaglobulinemia, infections & myelokathexis (WHIM).

187 Which of the following is false about ‘Pelger-Huet anomaly’ ?
A. Benign disorder
B. Majority of granulocytes are bilobed
C. Nucleus has spectacle-like configuration
D. None of the above
Explanation:- Pelger-Hüet anomaly is a benign inherited disorder. Majority of granulocytes are bilobed (hyposegmented neutrophils). Nucleus has a spectacle-like, or “pince-nez” configuration.

188 Under normal conditions, what proportion of neutrophil pool is in the bone marrow ?
A. ~ 20 %
B. ~ 50 %
C. ~ 70 %
D. ~ 90 %

189 Under normal conditions, what proportion of neutrophil pool is in the circulation ?
A. ~ 2 %
B. ~ 20 %
C. ~ 50 %
D. ~ 90 %
Explanation:- Normally, ~90% of the neutrophil pool is in bone marrow, 2 – 3% in circulation (freely flowing & marginated), & remainder in tissues.

190 Marginated leukocytes are maximum in ?
A. Lungs
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
Explanation:- Circulating pool of neutrophils exists in two dynamic compartments: one freely flowing and one marginated. Freely flowing pool is ~half the neutrophils in basal state and is composed of those cells that are in the blood and not in contact with endothelium. Marginated leukocytes are those that are in close physical contact with endothelium. Due to extensive capillary bed (~1000 capillaries per alveolus) in pulmonary circulation, margination occurs because the capillaries are about the same size as a mature neutrophil.

191 “Rolling” of the neutrophil along the endothelial surface is a function of ?
A. Selectins
B. Integrins
C. Intercellular adhesion molecules
D. Opsonins
Explanation:- Selectins are glycoproteins expressed on neutrophils & endothelial cells and cause a lowaffinity interaction resulting in “rolling” of neutrophil along the endothelial surface.

192 Neutrophils “stick” to the endothelium through ?
A. Selectins
B. Integrins
C. Intercellular adhesion molecules
D. Opsonins
Explanation:- In response to chemotactic stimuli from injured tissues or bacterial products, neutrophil adhesiveness increases and they “stick” to the endothelium through integrins. Integrins are leukocyte glycoproteins that bind to specific endothelial receptors [intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAM) 1 & 2].

193 Diapedesis involves which of the following ?
A. PECAM 1
B. Anaphylatoxins
C. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
D. Prostaglandins E & I
Explanation:- Process of migration into tissues is called diapedesis and involves crawling of neutrophils between postcapillary endothelial cells that open junctions between adjacent cells to permit leukocyte passage. Diapedesis involves platelet/endothelial cell adhesion molecule (PECAM) 1 (CD31) expressed on emigrating leukocyte & endothelial cells.

194 In the healthy adult, most neutrophils leave the body by ?
A. Migration through mucous membrane of GI tract
B. Apoptosis
C. Phagocytosis
D. All of the above
Explanation:- In the healthy adult, most neutrophils leave the body by migration through the mucous membrane of the gastrointestinal tract.

195 Normally, neutrophils spend how much time in circulation ?
A. 2 to 3 hours
B. 6 to 7 hours
C. 12 to 24 hours
D. 24 to 36 hours
Explanation:- Normally, neutrophils spend a short time in circulation (half-life, 6 – 7 hours).

196 Senescent neutrophils are cleared from the circulation by macrophages in ?
A. Kidneys
B. Lung
C. GI tract
D. Thymus
Explanation:- Senescent neutrophils are cleared from the circulation by macrophages in the lung and spleen.

197 Characteristic green color to pus is due to ?
A. Collagenase
B. Elastase
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Myeloperoxidase confers the characteristic green color to pus and may participate in turning off the inflammatory process by inactivating chemoattractants and immobilizing phagocytic cells.

198 Which of the following is not a group of chemokines ?
A. C
B. CC
C. CCC
D. CXC
Explanation:- Four major groups of chemokines are recognized based on cysteine structure near N terminus: C, CC, CXC, and CXXXC. C chemokine (lymphotactin) is T cell tropic. CC chemokines (MIP-1) attract lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, & basophils. CXC cytokines (IL-8) attract neutrophils. CXXXC chemokine (fractalkine) attracts neutrophils, monocytes, & T cells.

199 Susceptibility to infectious diseases increases sharply when neutrophil counts fall below ?
A. 1000 cells/μL
B. 2000 cells/μL
C. 3000 cells/μL
D. 4000 cells/μL
Explanation:- Susceptibility to infectious diseases increases sharply when neutrophil counts fall <1000 cells/μL.

200 Inflammatory process is absent, when absolute neutrophil count (ANC) falls below ?
A. < 100 cells / μL
B. < 200 cells / μL
C. < 500 cells / μL
D. < 1000 cells / μL
Explanation:- When absolute neutrophil count (band forms & mature neutrophils combined) is <200/μL, the inflammatory process is absent.

201 Neutropenia can be due to ?
A. Depressed production
B. Increased peripheral destruction
C. Excessive peripheral pooling
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Neutropenia can be due to depressed production, increased peripheral destruction, or excessive peripheral pooling.

202 Which of the following drugs cause neutropenia due to decreased production ?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Clozapine
C. Antithyroid drugs
D. All of the above
Explanation:- drugs cause neutropenia due to decreased production include alkylating agents (nitrogen mustard, busulfan, chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide), antimetabolites (methotrexate, 6-mercaptopurine, 5- flucytosine), antibiotics (chloramphenicol, penicillins, sulfonamides), phenothiazines, tranquilizers (meprobamate), anticonvulsants (carbamazepine), antipsychotics (clozapine), certain diuretics, anti-inflammatory agents, antithyroid drugs.

203 Which of the following drugs act as haptens to cause neutropenia due to peripheral destruction ?
A. Alpha methyldopa
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Mercurial diuretics
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Drugs that act as haptens to cause neutropenia due to peripheral destruction include aminopyrine, alpha methyldopa, phenylbutazone, mercurial diuretics, some phenothiazines.

204 Which of the following is a cause of neutropenia due to peripheral pooling (Transient neutropenia) ?
A. Overwhelming bacterial infection (acute endotoxemia)
B. Hemodialysis
C. Cardiopulmonary bypass
D. All of the above

205 Congenital forms of neutropenia include ?
A. Kostmann’s syndrome
B. Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
C. WHIM syndrome
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Congenital forms of neutropenia include Kostmann’s syndrome, cartilage-hair hypoplasia syndrome, Shwachman-Diamond syndrome, WHIM syndrome and hereditary cyclic neutropenia.

206 Kostmann’s syndrome is due to mutations in ?
A. Potassium voltage-gated channel gene KCNA1
B. PKD-1 gene
C. Anti-apoptosis gene HAX-1
D. GJB2 gene
Explanation:- Kostmann’s syndrome is due to mutations in anti-apoptosis gene HAX-1.

207 Which of the following is associated with pancreatic insufficiency ?
A. Kostmann’s syndrome
B. Shwachman-Diamond syndrome
C. WHIM syndrome
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Shwachman-Diamond syndrome is associated with pancreatic insufficiency and is due to mutations in the Shwachman-Bodian-Diamond syndrome gene SBDS.

208 Felty’s syndrome include all except ?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Splenomegaly
D. Neutropenia
Explanation:- Rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly & neutropenia form the triad of Felty’s syndrome. Neutropenia is due to antibodies produced by spleen that shorten neutrophil life span, while large granular lymphocytes (LGL) can attack marrow neutrophil precursors.

209 Neutrophilia results from ?
A. Increased neutrophil production
B. Increased marrow release
C. Defective margination
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Neutrophilia is due to increased neutrophil production & marrow release or defective margination.

210 Persistent neutrophilia with what level of raised cell counts is called leukemoid reaction ?
A. > 10000 to 30000 / μL
B. > 30000 to 50000 / μL
C. > 50000 to 75000 / μL
D. > 75000 to 100000 / μL

211 Which of the following is false about leukemoid reaction ?
A. Neutrophil cell count > 30000 to 50000 / μL
B. Circulating neutrophils are mature
C. Circulating neutrophils are clonally derived
D. None of the above
Explanation:- Persistent neutrophilia with cell counts of 30,000 – 50,000/μL is called a leukemoid reaction. In leukemoid reaction, circulating neutrophils are usually mature & not clonally derived.

212 Which of the following drugs can cause neutrophilia ?
A. Meprobamate
B. Lithium
C. Phenothiazines
D. Phenylbutazone
Explanation:- Epinephrine, glucocorticoids, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, lithium, , granulocyte colonystimulating factor (G-CSF) can cause neutrophilia.

213 Which of the following about leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) 1 & 2 is false ?
A. Autosomal dominant traits
B. Inability of neutrophils to exit circulation
C. Leukocytosis
D. Increased susceptibility to infection
Explanation:- LAD 1 & 2 are autosomal recessive traits leading to inability of neutrophils to exit circulation to sites of infection, leukocytosis & increased susceptibility to infection.

214 Patients with leukocyte adhesion deficiency 1 (LAD 1) have mutations in ?
A. CD18
B. CD31
C. CD34
D. CD62
Explanation:- Patients with LAD1 have mutations in CD18. CD18 gene is located on distal chromosome 21q.

215 Which of the following is called “Congenital disorder of glycosylation IIc (CDGIIc)” ?
A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency 1 (LAD 1)
B. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency 2 (LAD 2)
C. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency 3 (LAD 3)
D. None of the above
Explanation:- LAD 2 is also known as congenital disorder of glycosylation IIc (CDGIIc) due to mutation in a GDP-fucose transporter (SLC35C1).

216 In neutrophils, which of the following is seen in severe acute bacterial infections ?
A. Toxic granulations
B. Dohle bodies
C. Large neutrophil vacuoles
D. All of the above
Explanation:- In severe acute bacterial infection toxic granulations (immature or abnormally staining azurophil granules), Döhle bodies (cytoplasmic inclusions which are fragments of ribosome-rich endoplasmic reticulum) & large neutrophil vacuoles (pinocytosed or internalized membrane) are seen.

217 Which of the following is false about ‘Dohle body’ ?
A. Discrete, blue-staining nongranular areas found in periphery of cytoplasm of neutrophils
B. Found in infections and other toxic states
C. Aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. None of the above
Explanation:- Döhle bodies are discrete, blue-staining nongranular areas found in periphery of cytoplasm of neutrophil in infections & toxic states. They are aggregates of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

218 For lymphocytes, “CD” stands for ?
A. Clonal determinant
B. Cluster determinant
C. Capsule determinant
D. Cell determinant

219 Which of the following is false about Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) ?
A. Autosomal recessive inheritance
B. Defects in lysosomal transport protein LYST
C. Abnormal packaging & disbursement of granules
D. None of the above
Explanation:- CHS is a systemic disease with autosomal recessive inheritance due to defects in the lysosomal transport protein LYST required for normal packaging and disbursement of granules, encoded by the gene CHS1 at 1q42. Characterized by the presence of giant lysosomes within leukocytes.

220 Patients with Chédiak-Higashi syndrome (CHS) may have which of the following ?
A. Seizure
B. Blindness
C. Nystagmus
D. Tremors
Explanation:- Patients with CHS have nystagmus, partial oculocutaneous albinism, and an increased frequency of infections. Patients may develop a severe disabling peripheral neuropathy in adulthood. Vitamin C supplementation is useful in Chédiak-Higashi syndrome. Hematopoietic cell transplantation can cure patients of CHS.

221 Leukocytes from patients with chronic granulomatous disease (CGD) have severely diminished production of ?
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Nitric oxide
C. IL-1
D. TNF-alpha
Explanation:- Leukocytes from patients with CGD have severely diminished hydrogen peroxide production.

222 Frequency of which of the following is increased in CGD ?
A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
B. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
C. Discoid lupus
D. All of the above

223 Mononuclear phagocyte system is composed of ?
A. Monoblasts
B. Promonocytes
C. Monocytes
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Mononuclear phagocyte system is composed of monoblasts, promonocytes, monocytes and tissue macrophages.

224 Monocytes have a half-life in the blood of ?
A. 1 to 3 hours
B. 6 to 7 hours
C. 12 to 24 hours
D. 24 to 36 hours
Explanation:- Monocytes have a half-life in blood of 12 – 24 hours.

225 “Big eaters” is the term used for ?
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. Macrophages
D. None of the above
Explanation:- Macrophages are called “big eaters”. They differentiate from blood monocytes that arrive in tissues.

226 Function of macrophage secreted product – IL-1 is ?
A. Initiating fever in hypothalamus
B. Mobilizing leukocytes from bone marrow
C. Activating lymphocytes & neutrophils
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Functions of IL-1 include initiating fever in hypothalamus, mobilizing leukocytes from bone marrow and activating lymphocytes & neutrophils.

227 TNF- duplicates the function of which of the following ?
A. IL-1
B. IL-8
C. IL-12
D. IL-18
Explanation:- TNF- is a pyrogen that duplicates many actions of IL-1. It plays significant role in the pathogenesis of gram-negative shock.

228 Monocytopenia occurs with ?
A. Acute infections
B. Glucocorticoid therapy
C. Aplastic anemia
D. All of the above

229 Monocytopenia occurs with ?
A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Acute myeloid leukemia
C. Stress
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Monocytopenia occurs with acute infections, stress, glucocorticoid use, aplastic anemia, hairy cell leukemia, acute myeloid leukemia & use of myelotoxic drugs.

230 Monocytosis is associated with ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Brucellosis
C. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
D. All of the above

231 Monocytosis is associated with ?
A. Malaria
B. Visceral leishmaniasis (kala azar)
C. Hemolytic anemias
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Monocytosis is associated with TB, brucellosis, SABE, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, malaria, visceral leishmaniasis (kala azar), leukemias, myeloproliferative syndromes, hemolytic anemias, chronic idiopathic neutropenias & granulomatous diseases like sarcoidosis & regional enteritis.

232 “TRAPS” stands for ?
A. Tumour associated periodic syndromes
B. TNF- receptor associated periodic syndromes
C. Thyroid associated periodic syndromes
D. T receptor associated periodic syndromes
Explanation:- Gain-of-function mutations in TNF- receptor cause TNF- receptor-associated periodic syndrome (TRAPS) characterized by recurrent fever without infection (persistent stimulation of TNF- receptor).

233 Familial Mediterranean fever due to mutations in PYRIN is due to abnormal regulation of ?
A. IL-1
B. IL-8
C. IL-12
D. IL-18
Explanation:- Diseases with abnormal IL-1 regulation leading to fever include familial Mediterranean fever due to mutations in PYRIN.

234 Mutations in cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome 1 (CIAS1) lead to ?
A. Neonatal-onset multisystem autoinflammatory disease
B. Familial cold urticaria
C. Muckle-Wells syndrome
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Mutations in cold-induced autoinflammatory syndrome 1 (CIAS1) lead to neonatal-onset multisystem autoinflammatory disease, familial cold urticaria, and Muckle-Wells syndrome.

235 Mutations in CD2BP1 cause which of the following ?
A. PAPA syndrome
B. Muckle-Wells syndrome
C. Familial cold urticaria
D. Familial Mediterranean fever
Explanation:- The syndrome of pyoderma gangrenosum, acne, and sterile pyogenic arthritis (PAPA syndrome) is caused by mutations in CD2BP1.

236 Which of the following is a TNF- antagonist ?
A. Infliximab
B. Adalimumab
C. Etanercept
D. All of the above
Explanation:- TNF- antagonists are infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab, and etanercept.

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237 Specific chemokine expressed by eosinophils is ?
A. Eotaxin
B. Eosinotaxin
C. Eosinophilotaxin
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Eosinophils express a specific chemokine EOTAXIN.

238 Which of the following is false about eosinophils ?
A. Shorter half life than neutrophils
B. Eosinophils can recirculate
C. During most infections, eosinophils are not important
D. Central role in defense against invasive helminthic infections
Explanation:- Eosinophils have a longer half life than neutrophils. Unlike neutrophils, tissue eosinophils can recirculate. During most infections, eosinophils are not important but plays a central role in host defense in invasive helminthic infections.

239 Which of the following is false about eosinophil granule ?
A. Arginine-rich protein content
B. Histaminase activity
C. Contain eosinophil peroxidase
D. None of the above
Explanation:- Eosinophil granule contains arginine-rich protein in its crystalline core which has histaminase activity, eosinophil peroxidase that catalyzes oxidation by hydrogen peroxide.

240 Charcot-Leyden crystal protein in eosinophil cytoplasm is ?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Phospholipase
C. Lysophospholipase
D. Immunoglobulin E
Explanation:- Eosinophil cytoplasm contains Charcot-Leyden crystal protein which is a lysophospholipase.

241 Eosinophilia refers to how many eosinophils per microliter of blood ?
A. > 200
B. > 300
C. > 400
D. > 500
Explanation:- Eosinophilia is the presence of >500 eosinophils per μL of blood.

242 Eosinophilia is due to allergic reaction which of the following drugs ?
A. Iodides
B. Aspirin
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. All of the above

243 Eosinophilia is associated with which of the following diseases ?
A. Serum sickness
B. Eczema
C. Pemphigus
D. All of the above

244 Eosinophilia is associated with which of the following malignancies ?
A. Cancer pancreas
B. Cancer ovary
C. Cancer uterus
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Eosinophilia occurs in allergic reaction to drugs (iodides, aspirin, sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin, penicillins & cephalosporins), allergies (hay fever, asthma, eczema, serum sickness, allergic vasculitis, & pemphigus), collagen vascular diseases (RA, eosinophilic fasciitis, allergic angiitis & PAN), malignancies (Hodgkin’s disease; mycosis fungoides; CML, Ca. lung, stomach, pancreas, ovary, uterus), Job’s syndrome & CGD, and helminthic infections.

245 Which of the following is the dominant eosinophil growth factor ?
A. IL-1
B. IL-3
C. IL-5
D. All of the above
Explanation:- IL-5 is the dominant eosinophil growth factor.

246 Which of the following is false about eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome ?
A. Eosinophil count > 1000/μL
B. Caused by ingesting contaminants in L-tryptophan containing products
C. Responds to glucocorticoids
D. None of the above

247 Which of the following is an adverse effect of eosinopenia ?
A. Cardiac arrhythmias
B. Myopathy
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. None of the above
Explanation:- There is no known adverse effect of eosinopenia.

248 Which of the following is false about hyperimmunoglobulin E–recurrent infection (HIE) syndrome ?
A. Also called Job’s syndrome
B. ‘Cold’ skin abscesses
C. Kyphoscoliosis
D. Obstructive lung disease
Explanation:- Hyperimmunoglobulin E – recurrent infection syndrome is also called Job’s syndrome, characterized by typical facies with broad nose, kyphoscoliosis, osteoporosis & eczema. Primary teeth erupt normally but do not deciduate requiring extraction. Patients develop recurrent sinopulmonary & cutaneous infections much less inflamed than expected (“cold abscesses”).

249 Which of the following is performed to assess bone marrow reserves ?
A. Steroid challenge test
B. Epinephrine challenge test
C. Endotoxin challenge test
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Assessment of bone marrow reserves of WBC’s is done by steroid challenge test. Epinephrine challenge test is for marginated circulating pool of cells & endotoxin challenge test is for their marginating ability.

250 In vivo assessment of inflammation is done by ?
A. Rebuck skin window test
B. Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) dye test
C. Dihydrorhodamine (DHR) oxidation test
D. All of the above
Explanation:- In vivo assessment of inflammation is done by Rebuck skin window test or skin blister assay, which measures the ability of leukocytes & inflammatory mediators to accumulate locally in skin. NBT & DHR tests are for detecting deficiencies of oxidative metabolism.

251 Which of the following drugs is useful to restore myelopoiesis in neutropenia due to impaired production ?
A. Androgens
B. Glucocorticoids
C. Lithium
D. All of the above
Explanation:- Apart from recombinant G-CSF, androgens, glucocorticoids, lithium & immunosuppressive therapy are used to restore myelopoiesis in patients with neutropenia due to impaired production.

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