Pharmacology-I MCQs with Answers
1. Pharmacokinetics is:
A. The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
B. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
C. The study of mechanisms of drug action
D. The study of methods of new drug development
2. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
A. Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
B. Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
D. Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
3. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
A. Low ability to penetrate through the cell membrane lipids
B. Penetrate through membranes by means of endocytosis
C. Easy permeation through the blood-brain barrier
D. High reabsorption in renal tubules
4. What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
A. Plasma protein binding degree of substance
B. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
C. Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration
D. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
5. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass
effect?
A. Sublingual
B. Oral
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
6. Parenteral administration:
A. Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
B. Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
C. Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
D. Is too slow for emergency use
7. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following EXCEPT:
A. Biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
B. Absorption and distribution of drugs
C. Mechanisms of drug action
D. Drug interactions
8. What does “affinity” mean?
A. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to plasma proteins
B. A measure of how tightly a drug binds to a receptor
C. A measure of inhibiting potency of a drug
D. A measure of bioavailability of a drug
9. An agonist is a substance that:
A. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
B. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing various effects
C. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
D. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
10. An antagonist is a substance that:
A. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing maximal effect
B. Binds to the receptors and initiates changes in cell function, producing submaximal effect
C. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
D. Binds to the receptors without directly altering their functions
11. A competitive antagonist is a substance that:
A. Interacts with receptors and produces submaximal effect
B. Binds to the same receptor site and progressively inhibits the agonist response
C. Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue
D. Binds to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist
12. Tick the substance which changes the activity of an effector element but doesn’t belong to
second messengers:
A. cAMP
B. cGMP
C. G–protein
D. Calcium ions
13. Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:
A. The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
B. The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
C. The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients
D. The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of medicine in an organism
14. Pick out the correct definition of a toxic dose:
A. The amount of substance to produce the minimal biological effect
B. The amount of substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
C. The amount of substance to produce the necessary effect in most of patients
D. The amount of substance to fast creation of high concentration of medicine in an Organism
15. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to a drug which develops in a few minutes?
A. Refractoriness
B. Cumulative effect
C. Tolerance
D. Tachyphylaxis
16. Drug resistance is a term used to describe the loss of effectiveness of antimicrobial or antitumour drugs. This consideration is:
A. True
B. False
17. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
A. Tolerance
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Accumulation
D. Synergism
18. A teratogenic action is:
A. Toxic action on the liver
B. Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
C. Toxic action on blood system
D. Toxic action on kidneys
19. Therapeutic index (TI) is:
A. A ratio used to evaluate the safety and usefulness of a drug for indication
B. A ratio used to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug
C. A ratio used to evaluate the bioavailability of a drug
D. A ratio used to evaluate the elimination of a drug
20. The types of antagonism are:
A. Summarized
B. Potentiated
C. Additive
D. Competitive
21. Half life (t ½) is the time required to:
A. Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
B. Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
C. Absorb a half of an introduced drug
D. Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
22. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following?
A. Mechanisms of drug action
B. Biotransformation of drugs in the organism
C. Distribution of drugs in the organism
D. Excretion of drug from the organism
23. The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an antagonist is called:
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Irreversible antagonist
C. Agonist-antagonist
D. Partial agonist
24. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs?
A. Tolerance
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Accumulation
D. Synergism
25. Irreversible interaction of an antagonist with a receptor is due to:
A. Ionic bonds
B. Hydrogen bonds
C. Covalent bonds
D. All of the above
26. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
A. Pretty fast absorption
B. A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
C. A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
D. A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
27. Parenteral administration:
A. Cannot be used with unconsciousness patients
B. Generally results in a less accurate dosage than oral administration
C. Usually produces a more rapid response than oral administration
D. Is too slow for emergency use
28. Biological barriers include all except:
A. Renal tubules
B. Cell membranes
C. Capillary walls
D. Placenta
29. Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
A. Sublingual
B. Oral
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
30. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of
drugs through liver is minimized
A. Oral
B. Transdermal
C. Rectal
D. Intraduodenal
31. General unwanted effects of vasoconstrictors is:
a) Increase of arterial pressure
b) Increase of cardiac output
c) Decrease of peripheral blood flow
d) Increase of blood volume
32. Tick the drug influencing the blood flow which is related to antiplatelet agents:
a) Heparin
b) Aspirin
c) Pyracetam
d) Tanakan
33. Migraine is a disorder connected with:
a) Thrombosis of cerebral vessels
b) Brain hemorrhage
c) Dysfunction of regulation of cerebral vessel tonus
d) Malignant growth in brain
34. A good local anesthetic agent shouldn’t cause:
a) Local irritation and tissue damage
b) Systemic toxicity
c) Fast onset and long duration of action
d) Vasodilatation
35. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
A) Naloxone
b) Morphine
c) Pentazocine
d) Buprenorphine
36. Which of the following opioid analgesics can produce dysphoria, anxiety and hallucinations?
A) Morphine
b) Fentanyl
c) Pentazocine
d) Methadone
37. Neuroleptics are used to treat:
a) Neurosis
b) Psychosis
c) Narcolepsy
d) Parkinsonian disorders
38. Most antipsychotic drugs:
a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
c) Block NMDA receptor
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
39. Which of the following antipsychotic drugs is typical?
A) Clozapine
b) Quetiapine
c) Haloperidol
d) Olanzapine
40. Tolerance and drug resistance can be a consequence of:
a) Drug dependence
b) Increased metabolic degradation
c) Depressed renal drug excretion
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first-pass
41. Which of the following drugs is related to anticoagulants and may be useful in disorders of cerebral circulation?
a) Aspirin
b) Cinnarizine
c) Nicergoline
d) Heparin
42. All of the following statements regarding diuretics are true, EXCEPT:
a) Carbonic anhydrase inhibition leads to increased reabsorption of NaHCO3
b) Loop diuretics decrease Na+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle by competing for the Cl- site on the Na+/K+ 2Clcotransporter
c) In general, the potency of a diuretic is determined by where it acts in the renal tubule
d) Hydrochlorothiazide decreases urinary calcium excretion
43. The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
44. The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
45. The drug is one of the most potent diuretics:
a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)
46. Select an endocrine drug which is a peptide derivative:
a) Oxitocin
b) Prednisolone
c) Nandrolone
d) Progesterone
47. Which of the following hormones is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary?
a) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
b) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
c) Growth hormone (somatotropin, GH)
d) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
48. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?
a) Prednisolon
b) Dexamethasone
c) Triamcinolone
d) All of the above
49. Indications of vasopressin are following:
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Hypertension
c) Pituitary diabetes insipidus
d) Incompleted abortion
50. Vasopressin possesses the following:
a) Antidiuretic property
b) Vasodilatation property
c) Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma
d) Diuretic property
51. Vasopressin causes a pressor effect by:
a) Releasing noradrenaline from the nerve terminals
b) Releasing and activating renin-angiotensin system
c) A direct action on smooth muscles of the blood vessels
d) All of the above mechanisms
52. Which of the following statements about calcitonin is true:
a) Calcitonin secreted by parafollicular cells of the mammalian thyroid is a single-chain peptide hormone with 32 amino acids
b) Effects of calcitonin are to lower serum calcium and phosphate by acting on bones and kidneys.
c) Calcitonin inhibits osteoclastic bone resorption.
d) All of the above
53. Mechanism of action of calcitonin is:
a) Inhibits hydroxyapatite crystal formation, aggregation, and dissolution
b) Raises intracellular cAMP in osteoclasts
c) Activates bone resorption
d) Inhibits macrophages
54. Currently used oral hypoglycemic thiazolidinediones include the following, EXCEPT
a) Pioglitazone (Actos)
b) Rosiglitazone (Avandia)
c) Troglitazone (Rezulin)
d) All of the above
55. All of the following statements concerning angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are true EXCEPT:
a) They act by inhibiting the ability of renin to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
b) Enalapril is a prodrug that is converted to an active metabolite
c) They reduce secretion of aldosterone
d) They can produce hyperkalemia in combination with a potassium-sparing diuretic
56. All of the following effects of ACE inhibitors may be useful in treating heart failure EXCEPT:
a) They decrease afterload
b) They increase circulating catecholamine levels
c) They reduce reactive myocardial hypertrophy
d) They increase myocardial beta-1 adrenergic receptor density
57. Which of the following statements about estrogens are True:
a) Estrogens are required for normal sexual maturation and growth of the female
b) Estrogens decrease the rate of resorption of bone
c) Estrogens enhance the coagulability of blood
d) All of the above
58. The major synthetic estrogens are following, EXCEPT:
a) Dienestrol
b) Diethylstilbestrol
c) Benzestrol
d) Estradiol
59. Indications of synthetic estrogens are following, EXCEPT:
a) Primary hypogonadism
b) Postmenopausal hormonal therapy
c) Hormonal contraception
d) For treatment of simple obesity
60. Vasopressin possesses the following:
a) Antidiuretic property
b) Vasodilatation property
c) Release of a thyroid hormone into the plasma
d) Diuretic property
Class: Second Year
Subject: Pharmacology-I
Semester: IV
Subject Code: BP404T
