PHARMACOLOGY
51. Cyclosporine is effective in organ trans-plantation. The immunosuppressant action of the drug appears to be due to
(a) Activation of natural killer (NK) cells
(b) Blockade of tissue responses to inflammatory mediators
(c) Increased catabolism of IgG antibodies
(d) Inhibition of the gene transcription of interleukins
52. Azathiprone
(a) Binds avidly to a cytoplasmic immunophillin
(b) Blocks formation of tetrahydrofolic acid
(c) Is a precursor of cytarabine
(d) Is markedly hematotoxic and has caused neoplasms
53. Body Surface Area (BSA) is used in calculating chemotherapy doses because
(a) BSA is an indicator of tumor cell mass
(b) BSA correlates with cardiac output
(c) BSA correlates with gastrointestinal transit time
(d) the National Cancer Institute requires that BSA be used
(e) the Food and Drug Administration requires that BSA be used
54. Which one of the following agents acts at the step of antigen recognition?
(a) Cyclosporine
(b) Cyclophosphamide
(c) Methotrexate
(d) Rho (D) immune globulin
(e) Tacrolimus
55. Tumor necrosis factor – ααα – appears to play an important role in autoimmunity and inflammatory diseases. Which of the following is a humanized monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF – a and inhibits its action?
(a) Etanercept
(b) Infliximab
(c) Muromonab – CD3
(d) Sirolimus
56. Which one of the following agents is able to suppress both B and T lymphocytes via its inhibition of de novo synthesis of purines?
(a) Cyclophosphamide
(b) Methotrexate
(c) Mycophenolate mofetil
(d) Prednisone
57. Which one of the following agents increases phagocytosis by macrophages in patients with chronic granulomatous disease?
(a) Aldesleukin
(b) Interferon – γ
(c) Lymphocyte immune globulin
(d) Prednisone
58. A young woman employed as a dental laboratory technician complains of conjunctivitis, skin irritation, and hair loss. On examination, she has perforation of the nasal septum and a “milk and roses” complexion. These signs and symptoms are most likely to be due to
(a) Acute mercury poisoning
(b) Chronic inorganic arsenic poisoning
(c) Chronic mercury poisoning
(d) Excessive use of supplementary iron tablets
59. In the treatment of acute inorganic arsenic poisoning, the most likely drug to be used is
(a) Deferoxamine
(b) Dimercaprol
(c) EDTA
(d) Penicillamine
60. Which of the following drugs or drug groups is not useful in the prevention of nausea and vomiting included by cancer chemotherapy?
(a) Dexamethasone
(b) Dronabinol
(c) Ketaserin
(d) Ondansetron
61. Passive immunization involves
(a) Live Immunogens
(b) Polysaccharide vaccines
(c) Stimulation of antibody formation
(d) Use of preformed antibodies
62. A businessman intends to travel abroad in a geographical region where several diseases are endemic. He would not be able to be vaccinated against
(a) Cholera
(b) Malaria
(c) Meningococcal infection
(d) Typhoid fever
63. Which of the following is used in active immunization of children and combines bacterial toxoids with a bacterial antigen?
(a) BCG
(b) BSA
(c) DTP
(d) ISG
64. Which of the following is a polysaccharide used for active immunization in patients with chronic cardiorespiratory ailments?
(a) Antilymphocyte immune serum
(b) BCG vaccine
(c) Mumps virus vaccine
(d) Pneumococcal vaccine
65. A needlestick injury is sustained by a health care worker, and the blood is known to contain HBV surface antigens. The health care worker should be given
(a) Nothing
(b) Immune globulin
(c) Hepatitis B immune globulin
(d) Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immune globulin
66. Which one of these compounds enhances immune function in vitro & in clinical trials decreases the symptoms of the common cold?
(a) Echinacea
(b) Feverfew
(c) Garlic
(d) Melatonin
67. An important therapeutic or toxic effect of loop diuretics is
(a) Decreased blood volume
(b) Decreased heart rate
(c) Increased serum sodium
(d) Increased total body potassium
68. The most appropriate drug for reversing myasthenic crisis in a patient who is experiencing diplopia, dysarthria, and difficulty swallowing is
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Pilocarpine
(c) Pralidoxime
(d) Succinylcholine
69. In the management of patients with AIDS, the sulfonamides are often used in combination with inhibitors of folate reductase. However, such combinations have minimal activity against
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Nocardia species
(c) Pneumocystis carinii
(d) Treponema pallidum
70. Chemoprophylaxis for travelers to geographic regions where chloroquine resistant P falciparum is endemic is best provided by
(a) Atovaquone
(b) Mefloquine
(c) Primaquine
(d) Pyrimethamine plus sulfadoxine
71. This agent, which is used in the chemotherapy of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, is potentially leukemogenic
(a) Dacarbazine
(b) Doxorubicin
(c) Prednisone
(d) Procarbazine
72. A 54-year-old farmer has a 5-year history of frequent, recurrent, and very painful kidney stones. Appropriate chronic therapy for this man is
(a) Furosemide
(b) Hydrochlorothiazide
(c) Morphine
(d) Spironolactone
73. A 55-year-old executive has cardiomyopathy and congestive heart failure. He is being treated with diuretics. The mechanism of action of furosemide is best de-scribed as
(a) Interference with H+/HCO3 exchange
(b) Blockade of a Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter
(c) Blockade of a Na+/Cl- cotransporter
(d) Blockade of carbonic anhydrase
74. Which one of the following peptides is not a vasodilator?
(a) Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)
(b) Calcitonin gene-related peptide
(c) Endothelin
(d) Substance P
75. A young female patient using an oral contraceptive is to be treated for pulmonary tuberculosis. She is advised to use an additional method of contraception since the efficacy of the oral agents is commonly decreased if her drug regimen includes
(a) Amikacin (b) Ethambutol
(c) Isoniazid (d) Rifampin
76. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be effective in the treatment of gonorrhea in this patient and safe to use?
(a) Amoxicillin – clavulanate
(b) Ceftriaxone
(c) Clarithromycin
(d) Ofloxacin
77. The rationale for combination chemotherapy includes all of the following except
(a) Biochemical enhancement of effect
(b) Rescue of normal cells
(c) Overcoming or preventing resistance
(d) Biochemical nullification of effect
78. This compound reduces the need for platelet transfusions in patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy
(a) Cyanocobalamin
(b) Erythropoietin
(c) Interleukin – II
(d) Iron dextran
79. Which one of the following anticancer drugs acts in the M-phase of the cell cycle to prevent disassembly of the mitotic spindle?
(a) Dactinomycin (b) Etoposide
(c) Paclitaxel (d) Procarbazine
80. While colchicines has been used in acute gout, the drug often causes severe gastrointestinal distress. Consequently, many authorities now consider that the drug of choice for acute gout is
(a) Acetaminophen
(b) Aspirin
(c) Indomethacin
(d) Methotrexate
81. Relative to Lugol’s solution propylthouracil has
(a) A faster onset of antithyroid action
(b) A greater inhibitory effect on the proteolytic release of hormones from the thyroid gland
(c) Increased risk of fetal toxicity
(d) More sustained antithyroid activity when used continuously for several months
82. In antiviral immunity, what directly recognized and kills viral-infected cells?
(a) Cytotoxic T cells (CTLs)
(b) Antiviral antibodies
(c) Interferons
(d) None
83. An organ donor who is human leukocyte antigen (HLA) – matched with the recipient of a graft is sought. Which individual is at least somewhat likely to provide a total HLA match?
(a) A sibling of the graft recipient
(b) A parent of the graft recipient
(c) A cadaver
(d) None
84. Graft–versus–host (GVH) disease is associated primarily with which type of transplantation?
(a) Kidney
(b) Heart
(c) Bone marrow
(d) None of the above
85. Which is a valid comparison of live, attenuated and killed, inactivated active vaccines?
(a) Replication of the organisms in a live, attenuated vaccine increases the stimulation of the immune system, and a lower dose is often required
(b) Attenuated vaccines often require multiple doses
(c) A killed, inactivated vaccine probably produces life-long immunity in one or two doses
(d) None of the above
86. Which type of cell does not contain double standard deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
(a) Human cells
(b) Bacteria cells
(c) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) cells
(d) None of the above
87. Which enzyme is used by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) to form deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) in the host cell?
(a) Restrictive endonuclease
(b) DNA-directed polymerase
(c) Reverse transcriptase
(d) Both (a) and (b)
88. Gamma immunoglobulin is considered
(a) Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
(b) Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
(c) Protein
(d) None of the above
89. Glycoprotein is considered a protein linked to
(a) A carbohydrate
(b) A hormone
(c) A lipid
(d) A deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
90. An enzyme that cleaves deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) at a specific site is called
(a) Restrictive endonuclease
(b) Restrictive ribonuclease
(c) Trypsin
(d) None of the above
91. An example of a cytokine is
(a) Interleukin
(b) Insulin
(c) Gonadotropin
(d) Thyroxine
92. A common storage condition for most biotechnology products after reconstitution is
(a) Room temperature
(b) Cool place
(c) Warm place
(d) No excessive heat
93. What base is found in deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
(a) Cytosine & Guanine
(b) Adenine
(c) Thymine
(d) All of the above
94. Which of the following statements regarding signal transduction is incorrect?
(a) Thyroxine-bound receptors act on DNA and regulate specific transcription of genes.
(b) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate can act as second messenger.
(c) The level of drug receptors at the cell surface increases with chronic stimulation by receptor agonists
(d) Binding of ligand to cell-surface receptors can lead to synthesis of proteins
95. All of the following chemotherapy agents can be administered intrathecally except
(a) Methotrexate
(b) Cytrabine
(c) Hydrocortisone
(d) Vincristine
96. The efficacy rates for non-prescription antifungal agents for vaginal year infections is
(a) 50% (b) 60%
(c) 70% (d) 80%
97. The best product to treat vulvar pruritus in a woman with a vaginal yeast infection is
(a) External miconazole (Monistat)
(b) External miconazole and intravaginal miconazole (Monistat-7 combination pack)
(c) Intravaginal tioconazole (Vagistat 1)
(d) Intravaginal butoconazole (Femstat 3)
98. Which of the following patients complaining of vaginal yeast infection symptoms should be referred to a physician?
(a) If there is a history of recurrent vaginal yeast infection
(b) If she is pregnant
(c) If she is less than age 12
(d) All of the above
99. Which of the following herbs is known to cause cancer?
(a) Chaparral
(b) Comfrey
(c) Ma huang
(d) Licorice
100. Which of the following herbs should be used with caution while driving or performing other tasks that require alertness and coordination?
(a) Valerian
(b) Echinacea
(c) Dong Quai
(d) Feverfew
