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Anatomy & Physiology ( Part-2 ) MCQs with Answers


51. Which division of the nervous system includes the brain?
A. The autonomic nervous system
B. The peripheral nervous system
C. The central nervous system
D. The somatic nervous system

52. Which structure detects changes in temperature?
A. Pons
B. Thermo receptors
C. Medulla
D. Pituitary gland

53. Which division of the nervous system initiates a response known as fight or flight?
A. The sympathetic nervous system
B. The parasympathetic nervous system
C. The somatic nervous system
D. None of the above

54. Which part of the neurone receives information?
A. The Node of Ranvier
B. The myelin sheath
C. The axon
D. The dendrite

55. The action potential relies upon the movement of which of these ions into and out of the cell?
A. Calcium and magnesium
B. Iron and iodine
C. Sodium and potassium
D. Sodium and magnesium

56. Which of these is an example of a neurotransmitter?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Acetylcholine
D. All of the above

57. How many ventricles does the brain have?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

58. Which area of the brain is responsible for the awareness of sensation?
A. The cerebellum
B. The sensory area of the cerebrum
C. The primary motor region of the cerebrum
D. The thalamus

59. Which cranial nerve is responsible for eye movement?
A. Oculomotor
B. Vagus
C. Trigeminal
D. Olfactory

60. How many pairs of spinal nerves are?
A. 28 pairs
B. 29 pairs
C. 30 pairs
D. 31 pairs

61. What substance does aldosterone directly regulate the concentration of?
A. Potassium
B. Phosphorous
C. Sodium
D. Calcium

62. What hormone does the pancreatic alpha cell secrete?
A. Insulin
B. Somatostatin
C. Glucagon
D. Somatotropin

63. What stimulates the release of ADH from the posterior pituitary gland?
A. Increased blood levels of sodium
B. Decreased blood levels of sodium
C. Increased blood levels of glucose
D. Decreased blood levels of glucose

64. In the adult which cells does thyroid hormone not affect?
A. Pancreas
B. Stomach
C. Brain
D. Heart

65. Which one of the following is one of the major targets of parathyroid hormone?
A. Intestines
B. Brain
C. Heart
D. Liver

66. The target organ of TRH is:
A. The thyroid gland
B. The pituitary gland
C. The adrenal gland
D. The pancreas

67. In females the effect of follicle stimulating hormone is:
A. The final maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of oestrogen
B. The early maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of oestrogen
C. The final maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of progesterone
D. The early maturation of the ovarian follicles and the release of progesterone

68. Thyroid hormone:
A. Increases basal metabolic rate
B. Decreases basal metabolic rate
C. Has no effect on basal metabolic rate
D. Has an unknown effect on basal metabolic rate

69. Gluconeogenesis is:
A. The creation of glycogen
B. The destruction of glycogen
C. The destruction of glucose
D. The creation of glucose

70. Somatostatin released by the pancreas acts in what way when it affects the other cells of the pancreas?
A. In an endocrine fashion
B. In an exocrine fashion
C. In an autocrine fashion
D. In a paracrine fashion

71. The bone that protects the brain is called the:
A. Sternum
B. Cranium
C. Clavicle
D. Pelvis

72. The key purpose of the ribcage is to:
A. Protect the urinary bladder
B. Help with the movement of the intestines
C. Protect the heart and lungs
D. Allow the stomach to dilate and contract

73. What helps to make bone so strong?
A. Calcium and phosphorous
B. Vitamin D
C. The osteoclasts
D. Their shape

74. The anatomical name for the thigh bone is:
A. Sternum
B. Femur
C. Clavicle
D. Pelvis

75. Bone is also known as:
A. Oestrogen
B. Cartilage
C. Osseous tissue
D. Sinew

76. The correct term for the end of a bone is:
A. The terminal ileum
B. The diaphysis
C. The epiphysis
D. The xiphoid

77. Most bones in the human body are found in the:
A. Feet
B. Cranium
C. Face
D. Hands

78. Osteoporosis is:
A. Bone infection
B. Bone cancer
C. Bone disease that can lead to increased risk of fractures
D. Bony outgrowths

79. Osteoporosis is:
A. Bone infection
B. Bone cancer
C. Bone disease that can lead to increased risk of fractures
D. Bony outgrowths

80. A muscle fibre relaxes when
A. all the ATP is used up
B. the actin binding sites are saturated
C. the nerve stimulus is too forceful
D. the nerve stimulus is removed

81. What is a joint?
A. a hinge
B. the place where tendons are joined together
C. the place where two bones are joined
D. a ball and socket

82. Rigor mortis occurs in a dead human because
A. ATP, which is necessary for the detachment of cross bridges, is not being formed
B. ATP, which is necessary for the formation of cross bridges, is not being formed
C. Deterioration of muscle proteins prevents detachment of cross bridges
D. ATP, which is necessary for the formation of cross bridges, continues to be formed for several hours after death

83. Thick filaments in skeletal muscle are composed of
A. actin
B. myosin
C. troponin
D. tropomyosin

84. What is the function of a tendon?
A. to link muscles to bones
B. to link muscles to ligaments
C. to link bones to bones
D. to bind bone cells close together

85. Approximately how many skeletal muscles are there in the human body?
A. 1,000 B. 600
C. 100 D. 60

86. How do muscles attached to the bones move the body?
A. automatically
B. pull movement only
C. push movement only
D. push and pull movement

87. Muscles are made of groups of cells called
A. fibres
B. Calcium
C. Silica
D. Phosphorus

88. Which of the following is not performed by muscles?
A. motion
B. excretion
C. maintenance of posture
D. heat production

89. Muscle tissue refers to all contractile tissue. To what does the term muscular system most often refer?
A. skeletal muscle system
B. cardiac muscle system
C. visceral muscle system
D. computerized muscle tissue

90. What are the functions of the trachea?
A) To moisten and warm the air
B) To collect foreign matter or bacteria by the goblet secretory cells
C) To allow exchange of gases to take place
D) to act as a passageway between the larynx and pharynx

91. There are _________ cranial bones and __________ facial bones in the adult skull.
A) 6; 10
B) 8; 14
C) 12; 12
D) 5; 9

92. Which of these is not a normal function of the skeleton?
A) Mineral storage
B) Protection of underlying tissues
C) Storing hemopoietic tissues
D) All of these are functions of the skeleton.

93. Choose the surface feature that represents a depression in a bone.
A) Fossa
B) Process
C) Facet
D) Condyle

94. The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin layer of connective tissue called the _________________.
A) Diaphysis.
B) Endosteum
C) Periosteum
D) Epiphysis

95. ______________ are the type of bone cell that tears down bone during the building and remodeling process.
A) Osteocytes
B) Osteoblasts
C) Osteoclasts
D) Bone lining cells

96. During bone formation, as the periosteum calcifies, it gives rise to a thin plate of compact bone called the?
A) Periosteal bud
B) Periosteal bone collar
C) Primary ossification center
D) Epiphyseal plate

97. Which pair of fontanels are located on the front sides of the infant skull?
A) Posterolateral fontanels
B) Anterior fontanel
C) Posterior fontanel
D) Anterolateral fontanels

98. The foramen magnum is located in the _________________ bone of the skull.
A) Frontal B) Parietal
C) Occipital D) Temporal

99. Which of these features is not present in the sphenoid bone?
A) Crista Gallic
B) Sella turcica
C) Pterygoid processes
D) Foramen rotundum

100. Besides the maxilla, the hard palate is also composed of the _________________.
A) Ethmoid bone
B) Palatine bones
C) Zygomatic bones
D) Nasal bone

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