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Clinical Pharmacy MCQs with Answers (GPAT NIPER:-2)

 Clinical Pharmacy

1. Which of the following promotes the excretion of basic drugs?
D) Ammonium chloride

2. The comparison ofbioavailability between two dosage forms is refereed as
A. Bioavailability
B. Biopharmaceutics
C. Biological
D. Bioequivalence

3. The highest serum drug concentration following a single dose or at a steady state within a dosing interval is called ……….
A. Lead
B. Peak
C. Poison
D. Mechanisms

4. Why should care be taken when prescribing warfarin and amiodarone in combination?
A. Amiodarone and warfarin both have an anticoagulant effect.
B. Amiodarone may reverse the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
C. Amiodarone may increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.
D. Warfarin may reverse the antiarrhythmic effect of amiodarone.

5. Which of the following drug causes Phocomelia?
A) Thalidomide
B) Paracetamol
C) Amoxicillin
D) Heparin

6. The substantial degradation of an orally administered drug caused by enzyme metabolism in the liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation.
A. First-pass metabolism
B. Disposition
C. Antagonist
D. Hydrophilic

7. According to ICH GCP the investigator “should be qualified by………………………
A. Training and experience
B. Education, training and experience
C. Education and experience
D. Education and training

8. An epidemic that becomes unusually widespread and even global in its reach is referred to as a .
A. pandemic
B. hyper endemic
C. Spanish flu
D. Zoonotic

9. Pharmaceutical equivalent that produce the same effects in patients
A. Therapeutic equivalent
B. Therapeutic window
C. Minimum effective concentration (MEC)
D. Minimum toxic concentration (MTC)

10. How are prescription medicines different from OTC ones?
A. They contain much smaller amounts of active ingredients
B. They don’t contain dyes or preservatives
C. They’re unsafe for use without medical supervision
D. They can be toxic

11. Which of the following would be the most suitable course of action for a patient who refuses to take their prescribed medicine?
A) Explain to the patient that the medicine should be taken as prescribed in order to get the benefit of treatment and that the risk of harm from licensed medicines is very low.
B) Explore the reasons why they don’t wish to take their medicine and explain the benefits and risks of taking the medicine and the implications of not taking the medicine to the patient.
C) Explore the reasons why they don’t wish to take their medicine and try to convince them that the benefits of treatment outweigh the risks.
D) Explain the benefits of taking the medicine and the implications of not taking the medicine to the patient.

12. The is the heart of the patient counselling session
A) Preparing for the session.
B) Opening the session.
C) Counselling content.

D) Closing the session.

13. Which of the following drug is implicated in the causation of osteomalacia of the bone?
A. Steroid
B. Estrogen
C. Heparin
D. Phenytoin

14. Which of the following drug can result in result in cyanide poisoning?
A. Amyl nitrite
B. Hydroxycobalamine
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Sodium thiosulphate

15. According to the principles of ICH GCP what should be recorded, handled, and stored in a way that allows its accurate reporting, interpretation and verification?
A. Data entered into the case report form
B. Source information
C. All clinical trial information
D. Essential documents

16. According to the principles of ICH GCP, what is the most important consideration when conducting a clinical trial?
A. data accuracy
B. protection of trialsubjects
C. Process adherence
D. Statistical quality checks

17. What is informed consent in a clinical trial?
a) The subjects do not know which study treatment they receive
b) Patients injected with placebo and active doses
c) Fake treatment
d) Signed document of the recruited patient for the clinical trial procedures

18. Pharmacoeconomics studies include………….
A. the science and activities relating to the detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other medicine-related problem
B. Evaluates the cost (expressed in monetary terms) and effects (expressed in terms of monetary value, efficacy or enhanced quality of life) of a pharmaceutical product.

C. the study and analysis of the distribution (who, when, and where), patterns and determinants of health and disease conditions in defined populations.
D. the cost of branded medication, analysis of branded medication and its effect on manufacturer.

19. How many people will be selected for phase II trial?
a) The whole market will be under surveillance
b) 500-3000 people
c) 100-300 people
d) 20-50 people

20. Which of the following is a valid therapeutic use of interaction?
A. Use of Probenecid with Penicillin
B. Giving Aspirin with warfarin
C. Instructing patient to take levofloxacin with milk or antacid
D. Treatment of depression of MAO Inhibitor and Citalopram

21. Prevention of absorption due to Complexation and chelation of drugs in gastrointestinal tract is an example of……………….
A. Pharmacokinetic Interaction
B. Pharmacodynamics Interaction
C. Pharmaceutical Interaction
D. Metabolic Interaction

22. Which of the following antihypertensive agents should be avoided in the elderly patients?
A. Amlodipine
B. Atenolol
C. Benazepril
D. Methyldopa

23. Which of the following medication is safe to use in the third trimester of pregnancy?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Warfarin
C. Aspirin
D. Oxycodone

Q24) Case control studies is called as
A. Drug-oriented systems.
B. Dose-oriented systems.
C. Disease-oriented systems.
D. Complication-oriented systems.

25. Which is person responsible for the conduct of the clinical trial at a trial site?
a) Clinical Research Coordinator
b) Monitor
c) Investigator
d) Sponsor

26. What does IRB Stand for?
a) Investigational Review Board
b) International Review Board
c) Institutional Review Board
d) Inter institute review board

27. GCP provides public assurance that
a) Rights and safety of participants are protected
b) The rights, safety and wellbeing of research participants are protected and that research data are reliable.
c) Results are reliable
d) Safety of participant is observed and results are reliable

28. Which of the following is a technique pharmacists can use to humanize themselves to their patients?
a) Using the patient’s preferred name in conversation
b) Delegating as many tasks as possible to an assistant
c) Reading the text of a medication bottle verbatim to a patient
d) Providing business cards at the desk

29. Which of the following terms does not describe an Adverse Drug Reaction?
a) Idiosyncrasy
b) Anaphylaxis
c) Teratogenic effect
d) Placebo effect

30. A 75-year-old man had been receiving gentamicin (an aminoglycoside antibiotic) to
treat an urinary tract infection. After threem months of therapy patient’s serumcreatinine levels were 10 mg/dL ( normal 0.5-1.2) and serum gentamicin concentrations obtained just before the last dose were 9 mg/dL (normal < 2). Which of the following is the most likely adverse drug reaction the patient was suffering from?

a) Type II allergic reaction
b)Type III allergic reaction
c) Pseudo allergic reaction
d) Overdose toxicity

31. Idiosyncrasy is .

a) Type A ADRs
b) Type B ADRs
c) Type C ADRs
d) Type D ADRs

32. Which of the following drug is not needed to be TDM?
a) Carbamazepine.
b) Penicillin.
c) Digoxin.
d) Gentamicin.

33. Patient counselling helps to
a) Know chemical structure of drug
b) Develop business relations with pharmacist
c) Motivate the patient to take medicine for improvement of his/her health status.
d) Pass time at old age

34. Gary baby syndrome occur in new born with
a) Tetracycline
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Penicillin
d) Erythromycin

35. Absorption of Griseofulvin increases with ————–diet.
a) Carbohydrate
b) Fatty
c) protein
d) vitamin

36. Which of the following adverse drug reactions would you report to the Medicines and Healthcare Products regulatory Agency (MHRA) via the yellow card system for reporting?
a) A patient reports a skin rash after starting a course on amoxicillin capsules.
b) A patient reports experiencing dyspepsia when they take their indomethacin capsules.
c) A patient complains of a dry irritating cough since they have started takingramipril.
d) A patient complains they have experienced diarrhoea since taking azilsartan.

37. You are asked to compare the cost of four different antibacterial medicines. Which ofthe following treatment courses is the lowest cost?
a) Medicine A costs £17.00 for 28 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and
the usual treatment duration is 7 days.
b) Medicine B costs £30.00 for 100 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet four times a day
and the usual treatment duration is 7 days.
c) Medicine C costs £20.00 for 25 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet twice a day and
the usual treatment duration is 5 days.
d) Medicine D costs £25.00 for 14 tablets. The adult dose is one tablet each day and the usual treatment duration is 5 days.

38. Which of the following patients are at the highest risk of suffering from an adverse drug reaction?
a) An 8 month year old infant receiving a prescription for an antibiotic.
b) A 22 year old patient with asthma receiving prescriptions for inhalers to relieve and prevent their asthma.
c) A 48 year old patient who has hypertension and receives a prescription for an ACE Inhibitor.
d) A 68 year old patient who has oedema receiving a prescription for a diuretic.

39. What is a semi-synthetic drug?
a) A drug isolated from nature and used without any further modification
b) A drug made entirely in a lab from scratch
c) The structure of a drug half-way through its preparation
d) A drug which has been -made by nature and partly-modified in a lab

40 Which of the following statements best describes a lead compound?
a) A compound that contains the element lead
b) A compound from the research laboratory that is chosen to go forward for preclinical and clinical trials.
c) A molecule that shows some activity or property of interest and serves as the starting point for the development of a drug.
d) The first compound of a structural class of compounds to reach the market.