1. All are inhibitors of cytochrome P-450 enzymes except :
a. Amiodarone
b. Disulfiram
c. Fluoxetine
d. Rifampicin
2. When causes least “gain in weight”?
a. Olanzapine
b. Risperidone
c. Quetiapine
d. Ziprasidone
3. Loading dose depends on the following factors except :
a. Drug concentration to be achieved
b. Volume of distribution
c. Clearance of the drug
d. Bioavailability of drug
4. How long does the protection from passive immunization using an immune globulin preparation typically last ?
a. 1 to 3days
b. 1 to 3 weeks
c. 1 to 3 months
d. 1 to 3 years
5. Half life does not help in estimating :
a. Margin of safety
b. Time taken to eliminate the drug completely from the body
c. Dosing schedule
d. Cone, of drug in body at a particular time after its administration
6. Therapeutic index of a drug is an indicator of :
a. Potency
b. Safety
c. Action
d. Efficacy
7. All are reasons for reducing drug dosage in elderly except :
a. They are lean and their body mass is less
b. Have decreasing renal function with age
c. Have increased baroreceptor sensitivity
d. Body water is decreased
8. The drugs that does not cause Raynaud’s phenomenon:
a. Vincristine
b. Bleomycin
c. Vinblastin
d. Cisplatin
9. Competitive inhibition :
a. Response depends on antagonist concentration
b. Antagonist binds to same receptor as agonist
c. Binds to different sites
d. Reduces intrinsic activity of agonist
10. Which one of the opioids has maximum plasma protein binding capacity ?
a. Morphine
b. Sulfentanil
c. Fentanyl
d. Pethidine
11. Which of the following given in pregnancy has teratogenic effects :
a. Vit. B6
b. Vit. B3
c. Folic acid
d. Vit. D
12. Clearance means :
a. Rate of elimination/plasma concentration
b. Plasma concentration/half life
c. Time taken for the plasma concentration of the drug to be reduced to half its original value
d. Rate of elimination X plasma concentration
13. Steady state means :
a. Dose rate X clearance
b. Dose rate/clearance
c. Clearance/dose rte
d. Rate of elimination/plasma concentration
14. Drugs which cannot be safely used in pregnancy all except ?
a. Tetracycline
b. Sulphonylurea
c. Heparin
d. Warfarin
15. The antibiotic which cannot be safely used in pregnancy are all except :
a. Tetracycline
b. Ampicillin
c. Streptomycin
d. Sulphonamides
16. Zero order kinetics is not followed by :
a. Phenytoin
b. Ethanol
c. Barbiturates
d. Salicylates
17. If a drug is given repeatedly at approximately the same time as its half life, after how many dosages will the drug achieve a steady a state in plasma :
a. 2 – 3
b. 4 – 5
c. 8 – 9
d. 6 – 8
18. To increase the fetal lung maturity the drug to be used is :
a. Methyldopa
b. Propranolol
c. Insulin
d. Betamethasone
19. True regarding “Plasma half life” of drugs :
a. Maximum effective dose of drug
b. Max. lethal effect
c. Potency of drug
d. Dose frequency interval
20. Downgrading of receptors is due to
a. Increased uptake of agonist by them
b. Increased interaction with antagonist
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above
21. Which of the following does not cross placenta ?
a. 131I
b. Heparin
c. Warfarin
d. Dicoumarol
22. All are examples of prolong except :
a. Enalapril
b. Cortisone
c. Azathioprine
d. Mercaptopurine
23. True about partial agonist is :
a. Produces maximal effect
b. Supramaximal effect
c. Produces submaximal effect
d. Effect in opposite direction
24. Basic drug binds to :
a. α-acidic glycoprotein
b. Albumin
c. Lipoprotein
d. Mucoprotein
25. Km value indicates :
a. Purity of enzyme
b. Physiological role
c. Half life enzyme drug complex
d. Affinity
26. Placebo effect is :
a. Pharmacological
b. Psychological
c. Trial of drug effect
d. Drug dependence
27. Generic drug true is :
a. High cost
b. Increased bioavailability
c. Low cost
d. Reduced clearance
28. Oxidative elimination of drug :
a. Conjugation
b. Azo reduction
c. Acetylation
d. Sulfoxide
29. Monitoring of plasma level is required in :
a. Carbamazepine
b. Diazepam
c. Valproic acid
d. Phenytoin
30. Which of the following drug has high first pass metabolism :
a. Propranolol
b. Phenytoin
c. Doxycycline
d. Pentazocine
31. All are examples of microsomal inducers except :
a. Phenytoin
b. Ethanol
c. Cimetidine
d. Rifampicin
32. All are examples of prodrug except :
a. Enalapril
b. Bacampicillin
c. Levodopa
d. Phenylbutazone
33. Following drugs are hepatic microsomal inducers except :
a. Alcohol
b. Cimetidine
c. Phenyramine
d. Sulphonamides
34. All drug can cross placenta except :
a. Heparin
b. Diazepam
c. Theophylline
d. Warfarin
35. Drug contraindicated with pregnancy :
a. Hydralazine
b. Propranolol
c. Methyldopa
d. Magnesium sulphate
36. The advantages of transdermal delivery system are a/e :
a. High peak plasma level
b. Slow releasing
c. Continuous
d. Effect comes late
37. Which drug causes hyperuricemia is :
a. Pyrazinamide
b. Rifampicin
c. Ethambutol
d. Streptomycin
38. Which is not prodrug :
a. Oxyphenbutazone
b. Azathioprine
c. Cholecaflciferol
d. Sulindac
39. Plasma monitoring is essential in therapy of :
a. Ethosuccimide
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Phenytoin
d. Sodium valproate
40. Which of the following avoids lst bypass effect of drug :
a. Intra-arterial injection
b. Rectal suppositories
c. Intravenous injection
d. Oral insertion
48. Which is the advantage of sublingual route of administration of drugs :
a. Prevents first pass effect
b. Easy to administer
c. Lipid soluble
d. Can be spitted out with signs of toxicity
49. Drugs mostly cross biological membranes by :
a. Passive diffusion
b. Active diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Carrier mediated transport
e. All of the above
50. The alkaline drug (Amidopyrine) is absorbed from:
a. Stomach
b. Proximal small intestine
c. Distal small intestine
d. Colon
51. All of the following are protein bound except :
a. Propranolol
b. Atenolol
c. Phenylbutazone
d. Warfarin
52. What is prodrug :
a. Drug which increase efficiency of another drug
b. Metabolic end product
c. Inactive drug which gets activated in the body
d. Drug which competes with another for metabolism
53. Prodrugs are :
a. Lisinopril
b. Ramipril
c. Enalapril
d. Captopril
54. Which cytochrome is responsible for drugs metabolism?
a. P-450
b. C-3b
c. C-3A
d. C-2a
55. Which of the following statements is correct ?
a. Most drugs are absorbed in ionised form
b. Basic drugs are generally bound to plasma albumin
c. Microsomal enzymes are located in the mitochondria of hepatic cells
d. Blood brain barrier is deficient at the chemoreceptor trigger zone
56. Enzyme cytochrome p450 inhibitors are :
a. Sodium valproate
b. INH
c. Rifampicin
d. Ethambutol
57. Drug with extensive first pass metabolism :
a. Propranolol
b. Digoxin
c. Quinidine
d. Chlorpromazine
58. Which of the following shows high first pass metabolism :
a. Propranolol
b. Phenobarbitone
c. Phenylbutazone
d. Phenytoin
59. Substrate concentration and velocity curve indicates :
a. Michelis – Mentons equation
b. Inverse relation
c. Zero order kinetics
d. All of the above
60. Plasma concentration of drug at time 0 is 96 g/ml. If tl/2 is 2 hoursconcentration in plasma at 10 hours will be :
a. 4
b. 24
c. 12
d. 3
Answers
- d. Rifampicin
- d. Ziprasidone
- c. Clearance of …
- c. 1 to 3 months
- a. Margin of …
- b. Safety
- c. Have increased …
- a and c
- b. Antagonist …
- d. Pethidine
- d. Vit. D
- a. Rate of …
- b. Dose rate/ …
- c. Heparin
- b. Ampicillin
- c. Barbiturates
- b. 4 – 5
- d. Betamethasone
- d. Dose …
- a. Increased …
- b. Heparin
- c. Azathioprine
- c. Produces …
- a. α-acidic …
- c. Half life …
- b. Psychological
- c. Low cost
- d. Sulfoxide
- d. Phenytoin
- a. Propranolol
- c. Cimetidine
- d. Phenylbutazone
- b. Cimetidine
- a. Heparin
- b. Propranolol
- a. High peak …
- a. Pyrazinamide
- a. Oxyphenbu ….
- c. Phenytoin
- a. Intra-arterial …
- c. Drug activated …
- None
- a. Metyrapone
- c. Chlorpromazine
- d. Margin of …
- b. M- Dopa
- b and c
- a. Prevents …
- a. Passive …
- b. Proximal …
