General Pharmacology MCQs with Answers
51. Drug, not metabolised by liver is :
a. Penicillin G
b. Phenytoin
c. Erythromycin
d. Cimetidine
52. Which of the following is not an example of cytochrome P450 dehydrogenase inducer :
a. Phenobarbitone
b. Rifampicin
c. Phenytoin
d. Ketoconazole
53. Physiological antagonism found in :
a. Isoprenaline and Salbutamol
b. Isoprenaline and Adrenalin
c. Isoprenaline and Propanolol
d. Adrenaline and Histamine
54. Drug dependence is characterized by :
a. Takes it daily
b. Tolerance
c. Withdrawal symptoms occurs
d. Uses despite knowing harmful effects
55. Which is a pro-dug :
a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Lisinopril
c. Metochlorpramide
d. Ranitidine
e. Eptifibatide
56. Narrow therapeutic index seen in :
a. Metformin
b. Phenytoin
c. Cyclosporin
d. Digitalis
57. In G6PD deficiency, drugs contraindicated are :
a. Primaquine
b. Chloroquine
c. Hydralazine
d. Losartan
58. Advantages of fixed drug combinations :
a. Decrease cost
b. Increase efficacy
c. Increase compliance
d. Decrease resistance
e. Dose titration can be done
59. Drugs which cause fetal renal anomalies :
a. Enalapril
b. Furosemide
c. Angiotensin receptor blocker
d. Amlodipine
e. Phenytoin
60. On I.V. drug administration elimination of a drug depend on :
a. Lipid solubility
b. Volume of distribution
c. Clearance
d. Drug concentration
61. A 70 kg man was given a drug with dose of 100mg/ kg bd. wt t1/2 is 10 hours, plasma concn is 1.9 mg/ml clearance is :
a. 0-02 liter/hr
b. 20 liter/hr
c. K is 0.0693
d. K is 6.93
e. 0.2 liter/hr
62. True about tachyphylaxis :
a. Direct sympathomimetic involved
b. Mechanism clearly understood
c. Ephedrine tachyphylaxis reversed with noradrenaline
d. Indirect sympathomimetics involved
e. It is an anaphylaxis reaction
63. Drug transport mechanism include :
a. Active transport
b. Passive transport
c. Lipid solubility
d. Facilitated diffusion
e. Symport
64. Causes for less bioavailability :
a. High first pass metabolism
b. Increased absorption
c. IV drug administration
d. High solubility
65. Drugs inducing CYP3A4 include :
a. Fexofenadine
b. Phenytoin
c. Carbamazepine
d. Rifampin
e. Glucocorticoid
66. Which of the following statement is not true ?
a. If drug is administered rectally it follow first order
b. If drug is administered IM it follow zero order
c. If drug is administered IV it follow first order
d. Bioavailability is irregular after oral administration
e. In acute renal failure, renally excreted drug follow zero order kinetics
67. Pharmacogenetics is associated with :
a. Variability of enzyme action
b. Environmental influence
c. Individual variability in oral absorption
d. Different MAO in different individual
e. Different dose response curve in different individual
68. Drug synergism is seen in all except :
a. Flucytosine and amphotericin B for cryptococcal
b. Trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole for UTI
c. Penicillin and aminoglycoside
d. Chlortetracycline + penicillin
69. Drugs given by I.V. route :
a. Heparin
b. Pantoprazole
c. Ranitidine
c. Sumatriptan
d. Neomycin
70. True about efficacy and potency of drugs :
a. Efficacy is clinically more important than potency
b. Height of DRC corresponds to efficacy
c. The amount of drugs to produce certain response is called efficacy
d. Drugs having similar pharmacological action may have different efficacy
71. True about routes of drug administration :
a. 80% bioavailability by I.V. injection
b. I.M. administration needs sterile technique
c. I.D. injection produces local tissue necrosis and irritation
d. Inhalation produces delayed systemic bioavailability
72. Volume of distribution of drugs altered in :
a. Obesity
b. Athletes
c. Pregnancy
d. Older age
e. Neonate
73. Dose adjustment is needed if bilirubin is >1.5mg/ dl in :
a. Methotrexate
b. Ansacrine
c. Rifampicin
d. Tolcapone
74. First pass metabolism is seen in :
a. Lignocaine
b. Propranolol
c. Salbutamol
d. Dipyridamole
e. Erythromycin
75. Most important side effect of dapsone is hemolytic anaemia, the next adverse effect :
a. G – 6 – PD deficiency
b. Infectious mononucleosis like syndrome
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Lichenoid eruption
e. Skin pigmentation
76. Blood brain barrier crossed by :
a. Dopamine
b. Propranolol
c. Glycopyrrolate
d. Physostigmine
e. Streptomycin
77. Low therapeutic range is seen in :
a. Lithium
b. Erythromycin
c. Phenytoin
d. Propranolol
e. Tricyclic antidepressant
78. In hepatic metabolism phase II reactions are :
a. Dealkylation
b. Sulfonation
c. Methylation
d. Glucuronization
e. Deamination
79. Drug safely given in pregnancy :
a. Antifolate
b. Quinine
c. Chloroquine
d. Primaquine
e. Tetracycline
80. High hepatic excretion ratio seen in :
a. Propranolol
b. Lidocaine
c. Ampicillin
d. Imipramine
e. Theophylline
81. Drugs which cause malformation in the foetal include :
a. Heparin
b. Warfarin
c. Valproic acid
d. Steroids
e. Phenytoin
82. Which of the following drugs are secreted in breast milk :
a. Antihistaminics
b. Antithyroid drugs
c. Penicillin
d. Diazepam
e. Antiepileptics
83. Displacement of protein bound drug :
a. ↑↑ Drug plasma level
b. ↑↑ Side effects
c. ↓ Free levels
d. ↓ Effect
84. Which is true about Max. distribution :
a. Highly lipophilic
b. Blood brain barrier
c. ↓ Excretion
d. ↓ Receptor
85. At pharmacological doses unwanted unavoidable effects are called :
a. Side effects
b. Idiosyncratic reaction
c. Toxicity
d. Pharmacogenetics
86. Characteristic feature of agonist is :
a. Has affinity only
b. Has affinity as well as intrinsic activity
c. Has intrinsic activity only
d. Neither has affinity nor activity
87. True regarding dose-response curve is :
a. Cannot determine the potency of a drug
b. Log dose response curve is sigmoid shaped
c. Cannot find response to antagonist
d. A wide range of doses can not be plotted
88. Mechanism of action of GABA is on :
a. G protein
b. Tyrosine kinase
c. PIP / DAG
d. 5 – HT
89. The maximum effect of a drug is defined by its :
a. Therapeutic index [PGI Dec. 98]
b. Potency
c. Efficacy
d. Adversity
90. Alkalinity of urine is done in :
a. Barbiturate poisoning
b. Lithium toxicity
c. Alprazolam overdone
d. Diazepam toxicity
91. About acidic drug true is :
a. Best absorbed in acidic medium
b. Best absorbed in alkaline medium
c. Not absorbed in acidic medium
d. Binds to alpha glycoprotein
Answers
- 51. a. Penicillin G
- 52. d. Ketoconazole
- 53. d. Adrenaline …
- 54. a, b, c and d
- 55. a. Cyclophosph …
- 56. b, c and d
- 57. a and b
58. a, b, c and d - 59. a and c
- 60. a, b, c and d
- 61. e. 0.2 liter/hr
- 62. d. Indirect …
- 63. a, b, c, d and e
- 64. a. High first …
- 65. b, c, d and e
- 66. a, b and c
- 67. a and d
- 68. d. Chlortetra …
- 69. a, b and c
- 70. a, b and d
- 71. b and c
72. a, c, d, and e - 73. a, c and d
- 74. a, b and c
- 75. c and e
- 76. b and d
- 77. a and c
- 78. b, c and d
- 79. c. Chloroquine
- 80. a, b, d and e
- 81. b, c, d and e
- 82. a, b, c, and d
- 83. a. ↑↑ free …
- 84. a. Highly …
- 85. a. Side …
- 86. b. Has affinity …
- 87. b. Log dose …
- 88. a. G-protein
- 89. c. Efficacy
- 90. a. Barbiturate …
- 91. a. Best …
