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Pharmaceutical Jurisprudence (BP505T) MCQs with Answers

  1. License issue for bonded and non-bonded laboratory by
    a) Central Government
    b) State Government
    c) Excise commissioner
    d) Director of health services
  2. NDPS consultative committee consist of maximum of…… members.
    a) 15
    b) 10
    c) 20
    d) 25
  3. The president of PCI is
    a) Elected by its member
    b) Nominated by health secretory, Government of India
    c) Elected by registered pharmacist
    d) None of above
  4. Who was the first chairman of Pharmaceutical Enquiry Committee
    a) B. Mukharjee
    b) S. S. Bhatiya
    c) Joseph Bhore
    d) R. D. Dalal
  5. Punishment for contravention in relation to Ganja
    a) 10-20 years imprisonment and 1-2 lakh ruppes fine
    b) 5 years imprisonment and 50 thousand rupees fine.
    c) 2 years imprisonment and 50 thousand rupees fine
    d) None of above.
  6. Medicinal and toilet preparation manufactured in presence of excise officer
    a) Restricted
    b) Non-bonded lab
    c) Non-restricted
    d) Bonded lab
  7. Who was the first chairman of Drug Enquiry committee
    a) B. Mukharjee
    b) R. N. Chopra
    c) Joseph Bhore
    d) R. D. Dalal
  8. Medicinal and Toilet preparation act 1955 is effectively implemented throughout India
    from
    a) 2
    nd May 1956
    b) 5
    th June 1957
    c) 2
    nd April 1952
    d) 2
    nd April 1957
  9. The pharmacy bill was introduced by government of India in
    a) 1940
    b) 1927
    c) 1947
    d) 1847
  10. Diacetyl Morphine is also known as
    a) Ganja
    b) Heroine
    c) Charas
    d) Cocain
  11. Drug and cosmetics act 1940 was last amendment in year?
    a) 2005
    b) 2014
    c) 2008
    d) 1995
  12. If it is so coloured, coated, powdered or polished that damage is concealed or if it is made to appear of better or greater therapeutic value than it really is;
    a) Spurious drug
    b) Spurious cosmetics
    c) Misbranded drug
    d) Adulterated drug
  13. Change in colour of the hair and growth of new hair type of disease cover in which schedule as per D & C act 1940?
    a) Schedule J
    b) Schedule K
    c) Schedule E1
    d) Schedule Y
  14. Penalties for Offences like Manufacture of any spurious drug
    a) 1-3 year imprisonment and Rs. 5ooo fine
    b) 1 year imprisonment & Rs.2000 Fine
    c) Imprisonment up to 3 months & Rs.500 Fine
    d) Imprisonment up to 6 months & Rs. 1000 Fine on subsequent conviction
  15. Central register maintained by
    a) Central council
    b) M. C. I.
    c) AICTE
    d) State council
  16. In elected member of PCI six member elected by
    a) Central council
    b) U.G.C.
    c) AICTE
    d) All of above
  17. Report to the after inspection
    a) Central council
    b) State council
    c) Central government
    d) Joint state
  18. History of pharmacy act was studied in
    a) Chapter 4
    b) Chapter 3
    c) Chapter 1
    d) Chapter 2
  19. A person whose name have been removed from the register of other state shall
    a) Again register of other state
    b) On specific penalty they can registered
    c) Non intiled to registration
    d) All of above
  20. Minimum training required to be pharmacist
    a) 100 hours
    b) 500 hours
    c) 300 hours
    d) 800 hours
  21. Committee for the purpose of control and supervision of experinment on animal (CPCSEA) head office is situated in
    a) New Delhi
    b) Mumbai
    c) Chennai
    d) Kolkata
  22. Penalty for the import of poison without license is punishable with up to ….on first conviction
    a) 1000
    b) 500
    c) 2000
    d) 5000
  23. The prescribed renewal fees should paid before …..of every year
    a) 31st December
    b) 25th March
    c) 14th April
    d) 1
    st January
  24. In AICTE, the chairman is appointed by
    a) State government of Delhi
    b) Central government
    c) Election of registered pharmacist
    d) President
  25. Which authority is competent under the Drug and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisement) Act, 1954 to frame rules for carrying the purpose of the act
    a) State Government
    b) Central Government
    c) Drug controller General of India
    d) Director-General of Health services
  26. Application for license to manufacture goods liable to duty of excise, under medicinal and
    toilet preparations ( Excise Duties ) shall be made in
    a) Form A. L. 1
    b) Form A. L. 2
    c) Form A. L. 3
    d) Form A. L. 4
  27. Schedule M2 states
    a) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of medical devices
    b) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of cosmetics
    c) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of allopathic
    d) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of homeopathy
  28. —– started Bengal Chemical and Pharmaceuticals Ltd in 1901
    a) Prof. T. K. Gajjar
    b) Acharya Prafulla Chandra Ray
    c) Prof. M. L. Schroff
    d) Lt. Col. R. N. Chopra
  29. The excise inspector may allow the manufacture to take the sample for analysis with excise duty up to a maximum of
    a) 250
    b) 100
    c) 500
    d) 80
  30. The full-fledged Indian Pharmacopeia Committee was formed in 1948. The Chairman of the said committee was
    a) Dr. B. N. Ghosh
    b) Prof. M. L. Schroff
    c) Dr. R. G. Kar
    d) None
  31. The Drug Price control order is issued by the central Government by deriving power from
    which rule
    a) The Drug and Cosmetics Act,1940
    b) The Drug and Cosmetics Rule,1945
    c) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
    d) Narcotic Drug and Psychotropic substance Act,1985
  32. DPCO 1995 consist bulk drug
    a) 20
    b) 74
    c) 98
    d) 67
  33. Latest amendment in DPCO
    a) 1955
    b) 2013
    c) 1990
    d) 1995
  34. Maximum retail price inclusive of all taxes include in which schedule
    a) Non-schedule formulation
    b) Schedule formulation
    c) Both a & b
    d) None of above
  35. MAPE not more than?
    a) 50%
    b) 20%
    c) 10%
    d) 100%
  36. Post tax return on net worth is
    a) 10%
    b) 14%
    c) 12%
    d) 18%
  37. Code of pharmaceutical ethic developed by
    a) PCI
    b) SCI
    c) Both
    d) None
  38. Pharmacist in relation trade
    a) Should charge fair price
    b) Should not attract customer by gift
    c) Always purchase medicament from reputed sources
    d) All of above
  39. Pharmacist in relation to his profession
    a) Pharmacist-vigilance
    b) Law-abiding citizen
    c) Decoram and propriety
    d) All of above
  40. The prevention of cruelty to animal act was enacted in the
    a) 1940
    b) 1950
    c) 1960
    d) 1970
  41. As per supreme court, the Drug and Cosmetics Act has statute of
    a) Social
    b) Moral
    c) Economical
    d) Life saving
  42. The magic remedies act at was passed in the year
    a) 1954
    b) 1944
    c) 1920
    d) 1935
  43. Cure for cancer in an example of the following advertisements
    a) Prohibited
    b) Exempted
    c) Bonafide
    d) Permitted
  44. Penalty for use of government analyst report for advertisement is
    a) 500
    b) 5000
    c) 1000
    d) None
  45. MTP act was passed in which year
    a) 1971
    b) 1985
    c) 1975
    d) 1945
  46. If pregnancy duration is less than 12 weak than which RMP consent require for termination
    a) One
    b) Two
    c) Three
    d) Four
  47. Hospital or place for termination approved by?
    a) MCI
    b) DI
    c) DCO
    d) CMO of district
  48. If any person doing MTP is not RMP can punished with imprisonment of
    a) 2-7 year
    b) 1 year
    c) 5-10 year
    d) None of above
  49. The application to import drug as part of bonafide luggage is made to the licensing authority in…….
    a) Form 12A
    b) Form 12
    c) Form 12B
    d) Form 26
  50. The basic installation area for capsule according to schedule M
    a) 25 sq. m
    b) 30 sq. m
    c) 25 sq. m
    d) 15 sq. m
  51. Analysis and test of sample of vaccines are carried out at
    a) Central Indian Pharmacopoeia Laboratory, Ghaziabad
    b) Pasture Institute of India Laboratory, Coonoor
    c) Central Drug Testing Laboratory, Thane
    d) Central Research Institute, Kasauli
  52. The list of drug which are exempted from the provision of import is dealt in
    a) Schedule K
    b) Schedule D
    c) Schedule P
    d) Schedule Y
  53. As per Schedule M the permitted limit of solid contents in water for injection is……
    a) 10 ppm
    b) 100 ppm
    c) 0.1 ppm
    d) 1 ppm
  54. The particular to be shown in manufacturing raw materials and analytical records of drug
    are dealt under……
    a) Schedule M
    b) Schedule U
    c) Schedule U1
    d) Schedule W
  55. Whole human blood can be stored for……
    a) 12 days
    b) 24 days
    c) 21 days
    d) 60 days
  56. Application to manufacture cosmetics is made to the licensing authority in….
    a) Form 31
    b) Form 31A
    c) Form 32
    d) Form 32A
  57. Barbiturate is …..Drug.
    a) Schedule X
    b) Schedule C
    c) Schedule H
    d) Schedule Y
  58. The report of a test or analysis by an approved institution such as Central Drug Laboratory is submitted in……
    a) Form 36
    b) Form 37
    c) Form 38
    d) Form 39
  59. Under section 21 of the Indian penal code, all Drug Inspector are……..
    a) Qualified person
    b) Competent persons
    c) Public servant
    d) Officer-in-charge, Drug control
  60. Drug and cosmetics rules are divided into ……..schedule.
    a) 26
    b) 23
    c) 18
    d) 28


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