Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs with Answers
51. The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:
A. Reduction of circulating blood volume
B. Reduction in cardiac output
C. Decreased sympathetic tone
D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance vessels
52. Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor:
A. Diazoxide
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Minoxidil
D. Nicorandil
53. ‘Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with:
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Dipyridamole
C. Propranolol
D. Diltiazem
54. The antihypertensive action of calcium channel blockers is characterized by the following except:
A. Delayed onset; blood pressure starts falling after 1–2 weeks therapy
B. Lack of central side effects
C. No compromise of male sexual function
D. Safety in peripheral vascular diseases
55. Higher incidence of myocardial infarction and increased mortality has been noted with the use of the following antihypertensive drug:
A. Nifedipine
B. Verapamil
C. Diltiazem
D. Lisinopril
56. The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:
A. Reduction of circulating blood volume
B. Reduction in cardiac output
C. Decreased sympathetic tone
D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
57. Furosemide is to be preferred over hydrochlorothiazide when hypertension is accompanied by:
A. Asthma
B. Hyperuricaemia
C. Diabetes
D. Congestive heart failure
58. As antihypertensives the thiazide diuretics have the following advantages except:
A. High ceiling antihypertensive action
B. Absence of CNS side effects
C. Absence of tolerance development
D. Low cost
59. In the treatment of hypertension the beta adrenergic blockers have the following advantage:
A. They have minimal effect on work capacity, sleep quality and libido
B. They do not cause postural hypotension
C. Used alone, they have high ceiling antihypertensive efficacy
D. They can be used in combination with any other antihypertensive drug
60. Methyldopa lowers BP by:
A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings
B. Generating -methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
C. Generating -methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral
adrenergic nerve endings
D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
61. Select the vasodilator that is administered only by slow intravenous infusion and dilates both resistance as well as capacitance vessels:
A. Minoxidil
B. Diazoxide
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Glyceryl trinitrate
62. The following antihypertensive drug tends to lower plasma renin activity:
A. Clonidine
B. Hydralazine
C. Nifedipine
D. Captopril
63. Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell:
A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter
B. Na+-Cl– symporter
C. Na+-H+ antiporter
D. Na+ K+ ATPase
64. The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is:
A. Proximal tubule
B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Cortical diluting segment
D. Collecting ducts
65. The current therapeutic indication of acetazolamide is:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Renal insufficiency
C. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Glaucoma
66. Select the diuretic that can cause gynaecomastia, hirsutism and menstrual disturbance as a side effect on long-
term use:
A. Amiloride
B. Spironolactone
C. Metolazone
D. Acetazolamide
67. Which of the following peptides is a selective vasopressin V2 receptor agonist:
A. Arginine vasopressin
B. Desmopressin
C. Lypessin
D. Terlipressin
68. The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is:
A. Decrease in glomerular filtration rate
B. Decreased renal blood flow
C. Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle
D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
69. Autacoids differ from hormones in that:
A. Autacoids are involved only in the causation of pathological states
B. Autacoids do not have a specific cell/tissue of origin
C. Autacoids generally act locally at the site of generation and release
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
70. Histamine is involved as a mediator in the following pathological condition:
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
B. Inflammation
C. Carcinoid syndrome
D. Variant angina
71. The drug that can directly release histamine from mast cells without involving antigen-antibody reaction is:
A. Aspirin
B. Procaine
C. Morphine
D. Sulfadiazine
72. Select the H1 antihistaminic which is used topically in the nose for allergic rhinitis:
A. Loratadine
B. Cetirizine
C. Fexofenadine
D. Azelastine
73. H1 antihistaminics are beneficial in:
A. All types of allergic disorders
B. Certain type I allergic reactions only
C. Certain type IV allergic reactions only
D. Bronchial asthma
74. The following action of 5-Hydroxy tryptamine is mediated by the 5-HT3 receptor:
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Bradycardia
C. EDRF release
D. Platelet aggregation
75. The following 5-HT receptor is not a G protein coupled receptor:
A. 5-HT1
B. 5-HT2
C. 5-HT3
D. 5-HT4
76. The following is a selective 5-HT1D receptor agonist:
A. Buspirone
B. Ondansetron
C. Sumatriptan
D. α-methyl 5-HT
77. The smooth muscle stimulating action of 5-HT is most marked in the:
A. Bronchi
B. Intestines
C. Ureter
D. Biliary tract
78. The ‘amine’ ergot alkaloid differs from ‘amino acid’ ergot alkaloid in that it has:
A. High oral bioavailability
B. Better CNS penetrability
C. Weaker oxytocic action
D. Strong anti-5-HT action
79. Select the correct statement in relation to drug therapy of migraine:
A. Simple analgesics like paracetamol are ineffective in migraine
B. Ergot alkaloids are used for prophylaxis as well as treatment of migraine attacks
C. Use of ergot alkaloids is restricted to severe or resistant cases
D. Ergot alkaloids should be given till 24 hours after an attack has subsided
80. The most important risk in the use of sumatriptan for treatment of migraine is:
A. Precipitation of seizures
B. Precipitation of psychosis
C. Development of hypertension
D. Coronary vasospasm
81. The cyclooxygenase isoenzymes COX-1 and COX-2 differ from each other in that:
A. They catalyse different pathways in prostanoid biosynthesis
B. COX-1 is inhibited by aspirin but not COX-2
C. COX-2 is inhibited by ibuprofen but not COX-1
D. COX-1 is constitutive while COX-2 is largely inducible
82. Which of the following is an irreversible inhibitor of cyclooxygenase:
A. Aspirin
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Indomethacin
D. Piroxicam
83. Low doses of aspirin prolong bleeding time by selectively inhibiting synthesis of the following mediator in the platelets:
A. Thromboxane A2
B. 5-Hydroxytryptamine
C. Platelet activating factor
D. Prostacyclin
84. Aspirin in low doses produces longlasting inhibition of platelet cyclooxygenase (COX) because:
A. Platelets contain low quantity of COX
B. Platelets cannot synthesize fresh COX molecules
C. Platelets bind aspirin with high affinity
D. Platelet COX is inducible
85. Montelukast blocks the action of the following autacoid:
A. Prostacyclin
B. Platelet activating factor
C. Leukotriene B4
D. Leukotriene C4/D4
86. Several actions of growth hormone are exerted through the elaboration of:
A. Cyclic AMP
B. Cyclic GMP
C. Somatostatin
D. Insulin like growth factor-1
87. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:
A. Growth hormone
B. Insulin
C. Thyrotropin
D. All of the above
88. For therapeutic use, growth hormone is obtained from:
A. Recombinant DNA technique
B. Human cadaver pituitaries
C. Porcine pituitaries
D. Chemical synthesis
89. Gonadotropins are indicated in the following conditions except:
A. Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism in males
B. Cryptorchism in a boy less than 7 years old
C. Amenorrhoea and infertility in women
D. Polycystic ovaries
90. Serum TSH levels are high in most cases of:
A. Myxoedema
B. Grave’s disease
C. Carcinoma thyroid
D. Toxic nodular goiter
91. Trapping of iodide by the following organ/organs is enhanced by thyrotropin:
A. Thyroid
B. Salivary gland
C. Placenta
D. All of the above
92. Triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine in the treatment of:
A. Endemic goiter
B. Cretinism
C. Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
D. Myxoedema coma
93. Insulin release from pancreatic cells is augmented by the following except:
A. Ketone bodies
B. Glucagon
C. Vagal stimulation
D. Alfa adrenergic agonists
94. The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:
A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes
B. Hyperinsulinemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases
95. The primary route of administration of insulin is:
A. Intradermal
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
96. The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is:
A. Regular insulin
B. Lente insulin
C. Isophane insulin
D. A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin
97. Insulin resistance can be minimised by the use of:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Tolbutamide
C. Protamine
D. Monocomponent/human insulin
98. Metformin is preferred over phenformin because:
A. It is more potent
B. It is less liable to cause lactic acidosis
C. It does not interfere with vitamin B12 absorption
D. It is not contraindicated in patients with kidney disease
99. The following antidiabetic drug inhibits intestinal brush border -glucosidase enzymes:
A. Acarbose
B. Pioglitazone
C. Metformin
D. Guargum
100. Glucagon release from pancreas is stimulated by:
A. High blood glucose level
B. Insulin
C. Somatostatin
D. AdrGuargum
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Subject:- Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics
Semester:- 8th sem , sem 8
Topic wise MCQs with answers
