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Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs with Answers

Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics MCQs with Answers

1. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering
A. Antacids
B. Tetracyclines
C. Phosphates
D. Ascorbic acid

2. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in:
A. Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency
B. Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency
D. Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid Deficiency

3. Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients:
A. Being treated with heparin
B. Being treated with streptokinase
C. Of obstructive jaundice
D. Of peptic ulcer

4. Menadione (vitamin K3) can produce kernicterus in neonates by:
A. Inducing haemolysis
B. Inhibiting glucuronidation of bilirubin
C. Displacing plasma protein bound bilirubin
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

5. The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion
B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin
C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI
D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa

6. Low doses of heparin prolong:
A. Bleeding time
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’

7. The following can be used to antagonise the action of heparin in case of overdose:
A. Heparan sulfate
B. Dextran sulfate
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Ancrod

8. Blood level of which clotting factor declines most rapidly after the initiation of warfarin therapy:
A. Factor VII
B. Factor IX
C. Factor X
D. Prothrombin

9. The following drug reduces the effect of oral anticoagulants:
A. Broad spectrum antibiotic
B. Cimetidine
C. Aspirin
D. Oral contraceptive

10. The most effective drug for prevention of stroke in atrial fibrillation patients is:
A. Aspirin
B. Warfarin
C. Low dose subcutaneous heparin
D. Digoxin

11. Select the fibrinolytic drug(s) that is/are antigenic:
A. Streptokinase
B. Urokinase
C. Alteplase
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’

12. Tranexaemic acid is a specific antidote of:
A. Fibrinolytic drugs
B. Organophosphates
C. Barbiturates
D. Heparin

13. Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A. Clotting factors in liver
B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium
C. Cyclic AMP in platelets
D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets

14. Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDLcholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor:
A. Lovastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. Pravastatin
D. Atorvastatin

15. Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level:
A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. A fibric acid derivative
C. Gugulipid
D. Nicotinic acid

16. The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoA reductase inhibitors is:
A. Onycolysis
B. Myopathy
C. Alopecia
D. Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

17. What is true of nicotinic acid as well as nicotinamide:
A. Both possess vitamin B3 activity
B. Both cause cutaneous vasodilatation
C. Both lower plasma triglyceride and VLDL levels
D. Both cause hyperglycaemia after prolonged medication

18. Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Extensive burns
C. Mutilating injuries
D. Endotoxin shock

19. Under physiological conditions the rate limiting enzyme in the generation of angiotensin II is:
A. Renin
B. Angiotensin converting enzyme
C. Aminopeptidase
D. Angiotensinase

20. Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by:
A. Direct vasoconstriction
B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla
C. Increasing central sympathetic tone
D. All of the above

21. The following factors enhance renin release from the kidney except:
A. Fall in blood pressure
B. Reduction in blood volume
C. Enhanced sympathetic activity
D. Volume overload

22. The following drug increases cardiac output in congestive heart failure without having any direct myocardial
action:
A. Captopril
B. Digoxin
C. Amrinone
D. Dobutamine

23. Losartan is a:
A. Selective AT1 receptor antagonist
B. Selective AT2 receptor antagonist
C. Nonselective AT1 + AT2 receptor antagonist
D. AT1 receptor partial agonist

24. Choose the drug that selectively blocks AT1 subtype of angiotensin receptors:
A. Ramipril
B. Lovastatin
C. Candesartan
D. Sumatriptan

25. Digitalis in creases the force of contraction of ventricles by:
A. Increasing the duration of systole
B. Increasing the rate of contraction without affecting the duration of systole
C. Increasing the rate of contraction, but reducing the duration of systole
D. Increasing both the rate of contraction as well as the duration of systole

26. Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by:
A. Increasing vagal tone
B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity
C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node
D. All of the above

27. Digoxin is contraindicated in:
A. Angina pectoris patients
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Hypertensive patients
D. Complete heart-block

28. The dose of digoxin in congestive heart failure is adjusted by monitoring:
A. Electrocardiogram
B. Heart rate and symptoms of CHF
C. Blood pressure
D. Plasma digoxin levels

29. The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is:
A. Na+ channel blockade
B. K+ channel opening
C. Depression of impulse conduction
D. Prolongation of effective refractory period

30. The following is not true of quinidine:
A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state
B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels
D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels

31. Select the drug which is used by intravenous infusion for emergency control of tachycardia and sudden rise in
blood pressure:
A. Amiodarone
B. Lignocaine
C. Esmolol
D. Disopyramide

32. The following antiarrhythmic drug accumulates in the body for a very long time:
A. Procainamide
B. Mexiletine
C. Bretylium
D. Amiodarone

33. The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack:
A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
C. Diltiazem
D. Dipyridamole

34. Antianginal drugs afford the following benefit/benefits:
A. Terminate anginal attacks
B. Decrease the frequency of anginal attacks
C. Retard the progression of coronary artery disease
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct

35. Choose the correct statement about the action of nitrates on coronary vessels:
A. They mitigate angina pectoris by increasing total coronary flow
B. They preferentially dilate conducting arteries without affecting resistance arterioles
C. They preferentially dilate autoregulatory arterioles without affecting the larger arteries
D. They increase subepicardial blood flow without affecting subendocardial blood flow

36. Which of the following drugs depresses automaticity of SA node as well as ectopic foci, abbreviates action
potential duration of Purkinje fibres, and slows atrioventricular conduction:
A. Propranolol
B. Lignocaine
C. Procainamide
D. Bretylium

37. Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with:
A. Amiodarone
B. Mexiletine
C. Sotalol
D. Procainamide

38. Organic nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle by:
A. Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP
B. Increasing intracellular cyclic AMP
C. Decreasing intracellular cyclic AMP
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct

39. Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver:
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Erythrityl tetranitrate

40. The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is:
A. Increase in total coronary blood flow
B. Redistribution of coronary blood flow
C. Reduction of cardiac preload
D. Reduction of cardiac afterload

41. Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except:
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous

42. Select the drug which can markedly potentiate the vasodilator action of organic nitrates:
A. Propranolol
B. Fluoxetine
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Sildenafil

43. The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels:
A. L-type voltage sensitive channels
B. T-type voltage sensitive channels
C. N-type voltage sensitive channels
D. Receptor operated calcium channels

44. Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina:
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Verapamil
D. Dipyridamole

45. Frequency dependent cardiac calcium channel blockade is exhibited by:
A. Verapamil
B. Nifedipine
C. Felodipine
D. Amlodipine

46. The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is:
A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia
B. Both cause bradycardia
C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
D. Both cause tachycardia

47. Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
A. Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate

48. Coronary steal phenomenon’ has been noted most frequently with:
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Dipyridamole
C. Propranolol
D. Diltiazem

49. Persistent dry cough may occur as a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug:
A. Enalapril
B. Atenolol
C. Diltiazem
D. Methyldopa

50. Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug:
A. Clonidine
B. Captopril
C. Verapamil
D. Prazosin

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Subject:- Pharmacology and Pharmacotherapeutics
Semester:- 8th sem , sem 8
Topic wise MCQs with answers