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pharmacy Topic wise MCQs

Pharmacology MCQs (Part- 15) with answers

PHARMACOLOGY

Q.1 Which one of the following drug is selective β1 receptor agonist?

  1. a) Ritodrine
  2. b) Albutrol
  3. c) Dobutamine
  4. d) Phenylephrine

Q.2 N-cyclopropyl methyl oxomorphone is known as

  1. a) Nalorphine
  2. b) Naltreoxone
  3. c) Naloxone
  4. d) Nalbuphine

Q.3 Rofecoxib is selective cox-2 inhibitor that possess ………heterocyclic ring system.

  1. a) Furan-2-one
  2. b) Pyrazole
  3. c) Isoxazole
  4. d) Imidazole

Q.4 β-adrenergic blockers are not used for

  1. a) Migraine headache
  2. b) Hypertension
  3. c) Angina pectoris
  4. d) Supraventricular bradycardia

Q.5 The cholinergic drug also useful in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmia is

  1. a) Physostigmine
  2. b) Eudrophonium chloride
  3. c) Ipratropium bromide
  4. d) Neostigmine

Q.6 The mechanism of action of nitrates is

  1. a) Inhibits phosphodiestrase
  2. b) Stimulates guanylate cyclase
  3. c) β-blocker
  4. d) α-blocker

Q.7 Which statement is false on organic nitrates?
a) Organic nitrates can prevent or release coronary artery spam
b) Organic nitrates are lipid-soluble and are well absorbed through the skin
c) These generate the unstable nitrate salt in situ
d) Can administered sub-lingual route

Q.8 The antianginal drug that inhibits phosphodiesterase is

  1. a) Aspirin
  2. b) Dipyridamole
  3. c) Amyl nitrate
  4. d) Isosorbide dinitrate

Q.9 Repaglinide is used as antidiabetic and belongs to the class

  1. a) Sulphonyl urea
  2. b) Thiozolidinedione
  3. c) Benzoic acid derivative
  4. d) Biguanide

Q.10 The antidiabetic also effective in lowering the cholesterol level is

  1. a) Rosiglitazone
  2. b) Phenformin
  3. c) Chlorpropamide
  4. d) Repaglinide

Q.11 The mechanism of action Rosiglitazone is

  1. a) Insulin releasing agent
  2. b) PPARγ agonist
  3. c) Increase cellular uptake of glucose
  4. d) reduces release of insulin

Q.12 Anticoagulants interfere with

  1. a) Prothrombin
  2. b) Vitamin K
  3. c) Factor V
  4. d) Factor XII

Q.13 One of the following is not a prodrug

  1. a) Clofibrate
  2. b) Lovastatin
  3. c) Simvastatin
  4. d) Ciprofibrate

Q.14 One of the following drug acts by sesquetering the bile acid in the GIT

  1. a) Gemfibrozil
  2. b) Colestipol
  3. c) Probucol
  4. d) Niacin

Q.15 The drug that reduces the absorption of cholesterol from the GIT is

  1. a) Colestipol
  2. b) Niacin
  3. c) Ezetimibe
  4. d) Gemfibrozil

Q.16 The antihyperlipidmic drug that is a benzophenone derivative is

  1. a) Ezetimibe
  2. b) Probucol
  3. c) Fenofibrate
  4. d) Dalvastatin

Q.17 Mexiletine belongs to

  1. a) Class IA
  2. b) Class IB
  3. c) Class II
  4. d) Class III

Q.18 Mechanism of action of propaphenone is

  1. a) β-blocker
  2. b) Blocks K Channel
  3. c) Blocks Na Channel
  4. d) Blocks Ca Channel

Q.19 Flacainide belongs to

  1. a) Class IA
  2. b) Class IB
  3. c) Class II
  4. d) Class IC

Q.20 Mechanism of action of Bretylium is

  1. a) β-blocker
  2. b) Blocks K Channel
  3. c) Blocks Na Channel
  4. d) Blocks Ca Channel

Q.21 The antiarrhythmic drug with local anesthetic action is

  1. a) Verapamil
  2. b) Bretylium
  3. c) Procainamide
  4. d) Disopyramide

Q.22 The water soluble analogue of prazosin is

  1. a) Terazosin
  2. b) Trimazosin
  3. c) Doxazocin
  4. d) Hydralazine

Q.23 The drug that act through mediation of nitric oxide is

  1. a) Atenolol
  2. b) Propranolol
  3. c) Hydralazine
  4. d) Clonidine

Q.24 The anti-hypertensive with both non-selective β- and α-antagonist activity is

  1. a) Propranolol
  2. b) Timolol
  3. c) Esmolol
  4. d) Labetalol

Q.25 The anti-hypertensive drug that is potassium channel opener is

  1. a) Verapamil
  2. b) Minoxidil
  3. c) Propranolol
  4. d) Diltiazem

Q.26 Which of the following actions is related to thiazide diuretics?

  1. a) Hyperuricemia
  2. b) Hyperkalmia
  3. c) Hypoglycemia in diabetes
  4. d) Hypocalcemia

Q.27 One of the following diuretic acts on the loop of henle:

  1. a) Spironolactone
  2. b) Ethacrynic acid
  3. c) Clorexolone
  4. d) Dichlorophenamide

Q.28 Primary site of action of thiazide diuretics in the nephron is

  1. a) Proximal tubule
  2. b) Loop of Henle
  3. c) Distal tubule
  4. d) Convoluted tubules

Q.29 Thiazide diuretics can have beneficial effect in osteoporosis/calcium nephrolithiasis due to which effect?

  1. a) Hypercalciuria
  2. b) hypocalciuria
  3. c) hyperurecemia
  4. d) Hyperkalmia

Q.30 Mechanism of action of Furosemide is:

  1. a) Inhibits carbonic anhydrase
  2. b) Inhibits Na+-K+-2Cl- transporter
  3. c) Osmotic diuretics
  4. d) Aldosterone antagonist

Q.31 Which of the followings is nonsedative antihistaminic

  1. a) Terfenadine
  2. b) Cetrizine
  3. c) Loratadine
  4. d) All of these

Q.32 The drug usefull for the treatment of Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome is:

  1. a) Cetrazine
  2. b) Promethazine
  3. c) Famotidine
  4. d) Fexofenadine

Q.33 Clemastine belongs to

  1. a) Ethylenediamine derivative
  2. b) Aminoalkyl ether derivative
  3. c) Propyl amine derivative
  4. d) Piperazine derivative

Q.34 The anti-histaminic drug with no heteroaryl ring system in its structure is:

  1. a) Doxylamine
  2. b) Triprolidine
  3. c) Medrylamine
  4. d) Meclizine

Q.35 An Indole derivative useful for the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease

  1. a) Donepezil
  2. b) Tacrine
  3. c) Besiperidine
  4. d) Milsmeline

Q.36 Pyridoxine supplement should not be co-administered with

  1. a) Isoniazid
  2. b) Levodopa
  3. c) both a & b
  4. d) none of these

Q.37 Which area is involved in Parkinson’s disease?

  1. a) Neostriatum
  2. b) Substantia nigra
  3. c) Pallidum
  4. d) Amygdala

Q.38 One of the following is synthesized using Ullman’s condensation reaction

  1. a) Anthralinic acid derivatives
  2. b) p-aminophenol derivatives
  3. c) Aryl alkanoic acid derivatives
  4. d) Pyrazolidinedione derivatives

Q.39 Which one of the followings is used as uterine muscle relexant?

  1. a) Ritodrine
  2. b) Tolbutamide
  3. c) Dobutamine
  4. d) Phenylephrine

Q.40 Hypertrichosis is major side effect of

  1. a) Hydralazine
  2. b) Sodium nitropruside
  3. c) Minoxidil
  4. d) Diazoxide

Q.41 Side effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) include except

  1. a) Peptic ulcer
  2. b) Reduced kidney functions
  3. c) GIT bleeding
  4. d) Seizers

Q.42 6-methoxy-naphthalene-2-acetic acid (MNA) is active metabolite of

  1. a) Naproxen
  2. b) Naphthyridine
  3. c) Nabumetone
  4. d) Sulindac

Q.43 The drug used as a narcotic substitute in addiction treatment because it prevents morphine Abstinence syndrome is

  1. a) Nalorphine
  2. b) Methadone
  3. c) Pethidine
  4. d) Pentazocin

Q.44 One of the following drugs is used as antidiarrheal

  1. a) Methadone
  2. b) Pentazocin
  3. c) Dextromethorphan
  4. d) Loperamide

Q.45 Which one of the following drugs is Serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

  1. a) Amoxapine
  2. b) Amitriptyline
  3. c) Imipramine
  4. d) Fluvoxamine

Q.46 In which synthesis is Curtius rearrangement employed

  1. a) Pargyline
  2. b) Tranylcyperomine
  3. c) Fluoxetine
  4. d) Imipramine

Q.47 Extra pyramidal symptoms are common side effects of which of the following medications?

  1. a) Haloperidol
  2. b) Olanzapine
  3. c) Quitiapine
  4. d) Ziprasidone

Q.48 Dibebzodiazepine derivative atypical neuroleptic drug is

  1. a) Loxapine
  2. b) Olanzepine
  3. c) Ziprasidone
  4. d) Clozapine

Q.49 This anticonvulsant is prodrug derived from Carbamazepine, with the benefits of fever Side effects and fewer drug interactions

  1. a) Lamotriazine
  2. b) Oxacarbazepine
  3. c) Procarbazepine
  4. d) Fosphenytoin

Q.50 An enzyme inducer, this anti-convulsant is one of the metabolites of primidone

  1. a) Phenytoin
  2. b) Phenobarbitone
  3. c) Carbamazapine
  4. d) Diazepam

Answers

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