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Nursing pharmacy Topic wise MCQs

Pharmacology MCQs (Part- 16) with answers

PHARMACOLOGY

Q.51 Benzodiazepine in which benzene ring at 5-position when omitted

  1. a) Increases the affinity towards the receptor
  2. b) acts as antagonist to the receptor
  3. c) acts at serotonin receptor
  4. d) shows reduced sedative and hypnotics activity

Q.52 Anxiolytic drug with no drowsiness is

  1. a) Diazepam
  2. b) Meprobamate
  3. c) Buspirone
  4. d) Alprazolam

Q.53 The major product formed by the condensation of 2-chloro phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloro propyl-4-methylpiperazine).

  1. a) Fluphenazine
  2. b) Trifluoperzine
  3. c) Chlorpromazine
  4. d) Prochlorperazine

Q.54 The drug Nifedipine can be synthesized from
a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia
b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia
c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine
d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine

Q.55 Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-Pyridyl)-propyl]-amine is chemical name of

  1. a) Diphenhydramine
  2. b) Pyrilamine
  3. c) Dimenhydrate
  4. d) Pheniramine

Q.56 2-(2-fluoro bi phenyl-4-yl) propionic acid is

  1. a) Nabumetone
  2. b) Fenoprofen
  3. c) Flurbiprofen
  4. d) Ketoprofen

Q.57 What is chemical name of Triprolidine is
a) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-1-yl-1-(4-tolyl) prop-enyl) pyridine
b) 1-[4-(4-Chlorophenyl)-3-phenyl-2-butenyl] pyrrolidine
c) (Z)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-1-yl-1-(4-tolyl) prop-enyl) pyridine
d) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-Pyridyl)-propyl]-amine

Q.58 The major metabolic route of Imipramine is

  1. a) by aromatic hydroxylation
  2. b) by oxidative deamination
  3. c) by N-mono dealkylation
  4. d) by hydrolysis

Q.59 2H-1,2,4-Benzothiadiazine-7-sulphonamide-6-chloro-1,1-dioxide,can be modified to change biological properties. Which one modification results in diminished activity?

  1. a) Saturation of -3,4-double bond
  2. b) Substitution of 6-chloro by –CF3
  3. c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5
  4. d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2

Q.60 Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of

  1. a) Famotidine
  2. b) Levodopa
  3. c) Bromocriptine
  4. d) Cimetidine

Q.61 The raw material for the synthesis of Propranolol is

  1. a) α-naphthylamine
  2. b) β-naphthol
  3. c) α-naphthol
  4. d) 1-naphthaldehyde

Q.62 Which one of the followings is starting material for the synthesis of Indomethacin?

  1. a) o-anisidine
  2. b) m- anisidine
  3. c) p-anisidine
  4. d) p-phenitidine

Q.63 Which one of the followings is aryloxy propanolamine derivative?

  1. a) Pindolol
  2. b) Labetalol
  3. c) Metaraminol
  4. d) Salbutamol

Q.64 Buprenorphine acts as antagonist on

  1. a) GABA receptor
  2. b) Histamine-H2-receptor
  3. c) Opiate receptor
  4. 4) β-adr. Receptor

Q.65 Select the drug that will aggravate bronchial asthma

  1. a) Amphetamine
  2. b) Morphine
  3. c) Propranolol
  4. d) Tubocurarine

Q.66 Which one of these is not dibenzo[a, d]cycloheptene derivative

  1. a) Amitriptyline
  2. b) Cyperoheptadine
  3. c) Amoxapine
  4. d) none of these

Q.67 Citalopram is used as antidepressant. It acts as

  1. a) MAO inhibitor
  2. b) selective nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor
  3. c) tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor
  4. d) Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitor

Q.68 o-chlorobenzoic acid is condensed with 2,3 xylidine to get

  1. a) Diclofenac
  2. b) Mefenamic acid
  3. c) Meloxicam
  4. d) Naproxen

Q.69 Zonisamide is used in

  1. a) Depression
  2. b) seizure
  3. c) blood pressure
  4. d) none of these

Q.70 one of the following is intermediate in synthesis of Atenolol

  1. a) 4-OH pheylacetamide
  2. b) γ-picoline
  3. c) 4-NH2 quinoline
  4. d) Isobutyl benzene

Q.71 Sodium nitropruside is one of the most potent blood pressure lower drug. Its use is limited because of

  1. a) Its short duration of action
  2. b) Very long duration of action
  3. c) Inactive in oral route
  4. d) none of these

Q.72 Which one of the following is longer acting Insulin preparation?

  1. a) Regular Insulin Injection
  2. b) Isophane Insulin Injection (NPH)
  3. c) Lente Insulin Injection
  4. d) Protamine Zinc Insulin Injection (PZI)

Q.73 Which of the followings drugs contain Indene moiety in its structure?

  1. a) Phenindamine
  2. b) Phenindione
  3. c) Sulindac
  4. d) all of these

Q.74 2-Aminopyridine is reductively alkyled using 1 mol of p-methoxy benzaldehyde & reducing agents to give an intermediate. The intermediate on treatment with 1 mol Dimethylamino ethylbromide in presence of sodium amide gives an antihistaminic drug.

  1. a) Mepyramine
  2. b) Pyrilamine
  3. c) both a & b
  4. d) none of these

Q.75 Reye’s syndrome is associated with one of the following drugs

  1. a) Codeine
  2. b) Morphine
  3. c) Aspirin
  4. d) Minoxidil

Q.76 Which one of following is side effect of morphine?

  1. a) Hypertrichosis
  2. b) Pinpoint pupil
  3. c) St. Antony’s fire
  4. d) alopecia

Q.77 11, 15-dihydroxy-9-oxo- prosta-5, 13-dien-1-oic acid is

  1. a) PGD2
  2. b) PGF2α
  3. c) PGI2
  4. d) PGE2

Q.78 When ramipril and Amiloride are co-administered together cause

  1. a) Hypokalmia
  2. b) Hyperkalmia
  3. c) gout
  4. d) none of these

Q.79 Which of the following is 5HT3 receptor antagonist that is used in anti-cancer drugs induced emesis?

  1. a) Ritodrine
  2. b) Ondansetron
  3. c) Buspirone
  4. d) Cyperoheptadine

Q.80 a person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can Cause severe hypotension

  1. a) Aspirin
  2. b) Cholestyramine
  3. c) Warfarin
  4. d) Sildenafil

Q.81 An acetyl salicylic ester of paracetamol is known as

  1. a) Mepenzolate
  2. b) Benorylate
  3. c) Diphenoxylate
  4. d) none of these

Q.82 Which of the following is a microsomal enzyme inducer?

  1. a) Indomethacin
  2. b) Clofibrate
  3. c) Tolbutamide
  4. d) Glutethemide

Q.83 Which one is a arteriolar vasodilator and causes lupus erythromatus?

  1. a) Minixodil
  2. b) Diazoxide
  3. c) Clonidine
  4. d) Hydralazine

Q.84 1-(p-chlorobenzoyl)-5-methoxy-2-methyl Indole-3-acetic acid is commonly known

  1. a) Sulindac
  2. b) Indomethacin
  3. c) Etodolac
  4. d) Ketorolac

Q.85 Benzilic acid ester and urea are condensed to prepare one of the following drug

  1. a) Phenetoin
  2. b) Ethusuximide
  3. c) Paramethadone
  4. d) Phenobarbitone

Q.86 Diuretic effective in diabetes insipidus is

  1. (a) Thiazides
  2. (b) Loop diuretic
  3. (c) Mercurial diuretic
  4. (d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Q.87 A benzomorphan derivative which is an analgesic

  1. a) Etorphine
  2. b) Levobutorphanol
  3. c) Pentazocin
  4. d) Dextromethorphan

Q.88 Somatostatin inhibits the release of

  1. (a) Growth hormone
  2. (b) Insulin
  3. (c) Thyrotropin
  4. (d) All of the above

Q.89 p-Fluoro phenyl acetic acid glycine conjugate is metabolic product of the drug

  1. a) Paracetamol
  2. b) Diloxanide furoate
  3. c) Haloperidol
  4. d) Sulindac

Q.90 Carvedilol is used as antihypertensive and it is

  1. a) Non seclective β and α antagonist
  2. b) non seclective β antagonist
  3. c) Non seclective α antagonist
  4. d) none of these

Q.91 Microsomal enzyme P-450 oxidase causes p-hydroxylation of aromatic ring of

  1. a) Phenetoin
  2. b) Phenobarbitone
  3. c) Both a & b
  4. d) Diazepam

Q.92 A local anaesthetic that can interfere with the action of guanthidine is

  1. a) Lidocaine
  2. b) Cocaine
  3. c) Procaine
  4. d) Procainamide

Q.93 Name the class of drug that is dangerous when the person had a meal with a high content of fermented foods.

  1. a) Carbonic anhydrase Inhibitors
  2. b) ACE inhibitors
  3. c) MAO inhibitors
  4. d) none

Q.94 One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-Enkephalin A

  1. a) Somatostatin
  2. b) Beta-endorphin
  3. c) Leu-enkephalin
  4. d) Dynorphin

Q.95 Which one drug is not used in the control of gout

  1. a) Probenecid
  2. b) Sulfinpyrazone
  3. c) Allopurinol
  4. d) D-Penicillamine

Q.96 Which one of the following thrombolytic agent is used in myocardial infarction?

  1. a) Heparin
  2. b) Warafrin
  3. c) Anistrplase
  4. d) Vit. K

Q.97 Mechanism of action of antithrombic agent is

  1. a) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
  2. b) Activation of clotting factors
  3. c) Inhibit Platelet function
  4. d) Agonist of vitamin K

Q.98 Mechanism of action of aspirin is

  1. a) Inhibits vitamin K absorption
  2. b) Antithrombin activity
  3. c) Inhibits metabolism of Heparin
  4. d) Inhibits platelet aggregation

Q.99 Metoclopramide is generally used for

  1. a) Prophylaxis of vomiting
  2. b) Preventing motion sickness
  3. c) Treating irritable Bowel syndrome
  4. d) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency

Q.100 An example of haemopoietic growth factor is

  1. a) Platelet derived factor
  2. b) Epidermal growth factor
  3. c) Iron dextran
  4. d) Erythropoietin

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