PHARMACOLOGY
Q.51 Benzodiazepine in which benzene ring at 5-position when omitted
- a) Increases the affinity towards the receptor
- b) acts as antagonist to the receptor
- c) acts at serotonin receptor
- d) shows reduced sedative and hypnotics activity
Q.52 Anxiolytic drug with no drowsiness is
- a) Diazepam
- b) Meprobamate
- c) Buspirone
- d) Alprazolam
Q.53 The major product formed by the condensation of 2-chloro phenothiazine with sodamide and 1-(3-chloro propyl-4-methylpiperazine).
- a) Fluphenazine
- b) Trifluoperzine
- c) Chlorpromazine
- d) Prochlorperazine
Q.54 The drug Nifedipine can be synthesized from
a) o-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia
b) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and ammonia
c) o-nitro benzaldehyde, ethyl acetoacetate and methylamine
d) p-nitro benzaldehyde, methyl acetoacetate and methylamine
Q.55 Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-Pyridyl)-propyl]-amine is chemical name of
- a) Diphenhydramine
- b) Pyrilamine
- c) Dimenhydrate
- d) Pheniramine
Q.56 2-(2-fluoro bi phenyl-4-yl) propionic acid is
- a) Nabumetone
- b) Fenoprofen
- c) Flurbiprofen
- d) Ketoprofen
Q.57 What is chemical name of Triprolidine is
a) (E)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-1-yl-1-(4-tolyl) prop-enyl) pyridine
b) 1-[4-(4-Chlorophenyl)-3-phenyl-2-butenyl] pyrrolidine
c) (Z)-2-(3-pyrrolidin-1-yl-1-(4-tolyl) prop-enyl) pyridine
d) Dimethyl-[3-phenyl-3-(2-Pyridyl)-propyl]-amine
Q.58 The major metabolic route of Imipramine is
- a) by aromatic hydroxylation
- b) by oxidative deamination
- c) by N-mono dealkylation
- d) by hydrolysis
Q.59 2H-1,2,4-Benzothiadiazine-7-sulphonamide-6-chloro-1,1-dioxide,can be modified to change biological properties. Which one modification results in diminished activity?
- a) Saturation of -3,4-double bond
- b) Substitution of 6-chloro by –CF3
- c) Insertion of a benzyl group at position 5
- d) Insertion of a methyl group at position 2
Q.60 Gynaecomastia can occur as a side effect of
- a) Famotidine
- b) Levodopa
- c) Bromocriptine
- d) Cimetidine
Q.61 The raw material for the synthesis of Propranolol is
- a) α-naphthylamine
- b) β-naphthol
- c) α-naphthol
- d) 1-naphthaldehyde
Q.62 Which one of the followings is starting material for the synthesis of Indomethacin?
- a) o-anisidine
- b) m- anisidine
- c) p-anisidine
- d) p-phenitidine
Q.63 Which one of the followings is aryloxy propanolamine derivative?
- a) Pindolol
- b) Labetalol
- c) Metaraminol
- d) Salbutamol
Q.64 Buprenorphine acts as antagonist on
- a) GABA receptor
- b) Histamine-H2-receptor
- c) Opiate receptor
- 4) β-adr. Receptor
Q.65 Select the drug that will aggravate bronchial asthma
- a) Amphetamine
- b) Morphine
- c) Propranolol
- d) Tubocurarine
Q.66 Which one of these is not dibenzo[a, d]cycloheptene derivative
- a) Amitriptyline
- b) Cyperoheptadine
- c) Amoxapine
- d) none of these
Q.67 Citalopram is used as antidepressant. It acts as
- a) MAO inhibitor
- b) selective nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor
- c) tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor
- d) Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Q.68 o-chlorobenzoic acid is condensed with 2,3 xylidine to get
- a) Diclofenac
- b) Mefenamic acid
- c) Meloxicam
- d) Naproxen
Q.69 Zonisamide is used in
- a) Depression
- b) seizure
- c) blood pressure
- d) none of these
Q.70 one of the following is intermediate in synthesis of Atenolol
- a) 4-OH pheylacetamide
- b) γ-picoline
- c) 4-NH2 quinoline
- d) Isobutyl benzene
Q.71 Sodium nitropruside is one of the most potent blood pressure lower drug. Its use is limited because of
- a) Its short duration of action
- b) Very long duration of action
- c) Inactive in oral route
- d) none of these
Q.72 Which one of the following is longer acting Insulin preparation?
- a) Regular Insulin Injection
- b) Isophane Insulin Injection (NPH)
- c) Lente Insulin Injection
- d) Protamine Zinc Insulin Injection (PZI)
Q.73 Which of the followings drugs contain Indene moiety in its structure?
- a) Phenindamine
- b) Phenindione
- c) Sulindac
- d) all of these
Q.74 2-Aminopyridine is reductively alkyled using 1 mol of p-methoxy benzaldehyde & reducing agents to give an intermediate. The intermediate on treatment with 1 mol Dimethylamino ethylbromide in presence of sodium amide gives an antihistaminic drug.
- a) Mepyramine
- b) Pyrilamine
- c) both a & b
- d) none of these
Q.75 Reye’s syndrome is associated with one of the following drugs
- a) Codeine
- b) Morphine
- c) Aspirin
- d) Minoxidil
Q.76 Which one of following is side effect of morphine?
- a) Hypertrichosis
- b) Pinpoint pupil
- c) St. Antony’s fire
- d) alopecia
Q.77 11, 15-dihydroxy-9-oxo- prosta-5, 13-dien-1-oic acid is
- a) PGD2
- b) PGF2α
- c) PGI2
- d) PGE2
Q.78 When ramipril and Amiloride are co-administered together cause
- a) Hypokalmia
- b) Hyperkalmia
- c) gout
- d) none of these
Q.79 Which of the following is 5HT3 receptor antagonist that is used in anti-cancer drugs induced emesis?
- a) Ritodrine
- b) Ondansetron
- c) Buspirone
- d) Cyperoheptadine
Q.80 a person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can Cause severe hypotension
- a) Aspirin
- b) Cholestyramine
- c) Warfarin
- d) Sildenafil
Q.81 An acetyl salicylic ester of paracetamol is known as
- a) Mepenzolate
- b) Benorylate
- c) Diphenoxylate
- d) none of these
Q.82 Which of the following is a microsomal enzyme inducer?
- a) Indomethacin
- b) Clofibrate
- c) Tolbutamide
- d) Glutethemide
Q.83 Which one is a arteriolar vasodilator and causes lupus erythromatus?
- a) Minixodil
- b) Diazoxide
- c) Clonidine
- d) Hydralazine
Q.84 1-(p-chlorobenzoyl)-5-methoxy-2-methyl Indole-3-acetic acid is commonly known
- a) Sulindac
- b) Indomethacin
- c) Etodolac
- d) Ketorolac
Q.85 Benzilic acid ester and urea are condensed to prepare one of the following drug
- a) Phenetoin
- b) Ethusuximide
- c) Paramethadone
- d) Phenobarbitone
Q.86 Diuretic effective in diabetes insipidus is
- (a) Thiazides
- (b) Loop diuretic
- (c) Mercurial diuretic
- (d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
Q.87 A benzomorphan derivative which is an analgesic
- a) Etorphine
- b) Levobutorphanol
- c) Pentazocin
- d) Dextromethorphan
Q.88 Somatostatin inhibits the release of
- (a) Growth hormone
- (b) Insulin
- (c) Thyrotropin
- (d) All of the above
Q.89 p-Fluoro phenyl acetic acid glycine conjugate is metabolic product of the drug
- a) Paracetamol
- b) Diloxanide furoate
- c) Haloperidol
- d) Sulindac
Q.90 Carvedilol is used as antihypertensive and it is
- a) Non seclective β and α antagonist
- b) non seclective β antagonist
- c) Non seclective α antagonist
- d) none of these
Q.91 Microsomal enzyme P-450 oxidase causes p-hydroxylation of aromatic ring of
- a) Phenetoin
- b) Phenobarbitone
- c) Both a & b
- d) Diazepam
Q.92 A local anaesthetic that can interfere with the action of guanthidine is
- a) Lidocaine
- b) Cocaine
- c) Procaine
- d) Procainamide
Q.93 Name the class of drug that is dangerous when the person had a meal with a high content of fermented foods.
- a) Carbonic anhydrase Inhibitors
- b) ACE inhibitors
- c) MAO inhibitors
- d) none
Q.94 One of the following opioid peptides is released from pro-Enkephalin A
- a) Somatostatin
- b) Beta-endorphin
- c) Leu-enkephalin
- d) Dynorphin
Q.95 Which one drug is not used in the control of gout
- a) Probenecid
- b) Sulfinpyrazone
- c) Allopurinol
- d) D-Penicillamine
Q.96 Which one of the following thrombolytic agent is used in myocardial infarction?
- a) Heparin
- b) Warafrin
- c) Anistrplase
- d) Vit. K
Q.97 Mechanism of action of antithrombic agent is
- a) Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
- b) Activation of clotting factors
- c) Inhibit Platelet function
- d) Agonist of vitamin K
Q.98 Mechanism of action of aspirin is
- a) Inhibits vitamin K absorption
- b) Antithrombin activity
- c) Inhibits metabolism of Heparin
- d) Inhibits platelet aggregation
Q.99 Metoclopramide is generally used for
- a) Prophylaxis of vomiting
- b) Preventing motion sickness
- c) Treating irritable Bowel syndrome
- d) Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency
Q.100 An example of haemopoietic growth factor is
- a) Platelet derived factor
- b) Epidermal growth factor
- c) Iron dextran
- d) Erythropoietin
