PHARMACOLOGY MCQS
1. Histamine is mainly involved in which type of allergic reactions?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
2. Which of the following is antihistaminic, anticholinergic and 5HT antagonist?
a. Cinnarizine
b. Cyprohetadine
c. Mepyramine
d. Both a & b
3. N-acetylcysteine is used in the poisoning of which NASID?
a. Aspirin
b. Indomethcin
c. Paracetamol
d. Sulindac
4. Paracetamol is detoxified by
a. Glucuronide conjugation
b. Glutathione conjugation
c. Glycine conjugation
d. Sulphate conjugation
5. Which of the following is prodrug & converted to sulfide active metabolite?
a. Phenacetin
b. Sulindac
c. Indomethacin
d. Nabumetone
6. Lefluomide an anti-rheumatoid drug inhibits
a. Thymidylate synthtase
b. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
c. Nuclear receptor activation
d. Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase
7. Which of the following is uricosuric agent?
a. Allopurinol
b. Probenecid
c. Colchicine
d. Diclofenac
8. Identify the false statement about Allopurinol
a. Allopurinol is an analogue of hypoxanthine
b. Allopurinol is converted to alloxanthine by xanthine oxidase
c. Allopurinol increases uric acid excretion
d. Used as prophylactic as the drug of choice in the long-term treatment of gout, but it is ineffective in the treatment of an acute attack and may even exacerbate the inflammation
9. Identify the drug choice for acute gout attack?
a. Allopurinol
b. Probenecid
c. Colchicine
d. Diclofenac & Colchicine
10. All of the following are the roles of histamine except?
a. It increases appetite
b. It produces sensation of itch
c. Causes bronchoconstriction
d. Increases gastric acid secretion
11. Antihistaminic used to increase appetite in underweight children is
a. Cetrizine
b. Loratadine
c. Loxatidine
d. Buclizine
12. The active metabolite of Terfenadine is
a. Loratidine
b. Fexofenadine
c. Triprolidine
d. Alfaprolidine
13. Cetrizine is an active metabolite of
a. Hydroxyzine
b. Promethazine
c. Cimetidine
d. Cinnarizine
14. Eicosanoids includes
a. Prostaglandins
b. Leukotrienes
c. Thromboxane
d. All
15. In LTB4 the subscript ‘4’ indicates
A. No. of double bonds
B. No. of conjugated doubles bonds
C. No. of alkyl substitutions
D. No. of halogens
16. Platelets primarily synthesize
a. TXA2
b. PGI2
c. LTB4
d. Histamine
17. Endothelium mainly generates
a. PGG2 b. PGI2
c. PAF d. PGF2α
18. All NASIDS are reversible inhibitors of cycle oxygenase except
a. Aspirin
b. Indomethacin
c. Celecoxib
d. Paracetamol
19. N-acetyl-P-benzoquinoneimine is highly reactive heapatotoxic metabolite is of
a. Aspirin
b. Indomethacin
c. Paracetamol
d. Ibuprofen
20. All of the following have arrhythmic potential by prolonging QTC interval except
a. Loratadine
b. Astemizole
c. Terfenadine
d. Ebastine
21. Misoprostol is used to prevent
a. Peptic ulcer
b. Post-partum haemorrhage
c. Glaucoma
d. Threatened abortion
22. NASID used for ocular inflammation
a. Ibuprofen
b. Piroxicam
c. Nimesulide
d. Flurbiprofen
23. NASIDS can inhibit the production of all except
a. PGI2
b. Cyclic Endoperoxides
c. TX2
d. Leukotrienes
24. Histamine is biosynthesized from decarboxylation of
a. Tryptophan
b. Tyrosine
c. Histidine
d. Phenylalanine
25. Serotonin is biosynthesized from
a. Tryptophan
b. Tyrosine
c. Histidine
d. Phenylalanine
26. Which of the following is not a vasodilator?
a. PGE2
b. PGI2
c. PGD2
d. PGF2α
27. Which of the following drug have local anesthetic effect also?
a. Promethazine
b. Mepyramine
c. Diphenhydramine
d. Loratidine
28. Which of the following anti-gout drug also inhibits platelet aggregation?
a. Colchicine
b. Sulfinpyrazone
c. Diclofenac
d. Allopurinol
29. An antidiabetic drug Piogliazone used in Type 2 diabetes acts by
a. Decrease of glucose uptake in muscles
b. Increasing insulin sensitivity
c. Inhibiting intestinal α-glucosidase
d. Stimulating insulin secretion
30. An angiotensin-II receptor blocker useful in treating hypertension is
a. Enalaprilat
b. Valsartan
c. Atenolol
d. Amiodipine
31. Co-administration of NSAIDs with Warfarin may often lead to
a. Antagonistic interaction
b. Interaction to change in drug transport
c. Interaction due to disturbances in electrolyte balance
d. Additive or synergistic interaction
32. A novel diterpenoid isolated from the bark of Taxus brevifolia is
a. Demecolcine
b. Paclitaxel
c. Vinblastin
d. Brevifolicin
33. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has been taking acetyl salicylic acid regularly. However, recently she has been experiencing stiffness, swelling and pain due to salicylate resistance. She has occult blood in her faeces. Suggest an appropriate drug suitable for her from those mentioned below:
a. Paracetamol
b. Celecoxib
c. Piroxicam
d. Naproxen
34. The breakdown of fibrin is catalyzed by
a. Plasmin
b. Renin
c. Urokinase
d. Ptylin
35. Azithromycin is clinically administered once daily as compared to erythromycin which is administered every 6 hours because, azithromycin
a. Penetrates into most tissues and is released very slowly.
b. Has methylated nitrogen in its lactone ring which renders it much more potent than erythromycin.
c. Is a very potent antibiotic but not tolerated well in the gastrointestinal tract
d. Is usually presented in a sustained release dosage form.
36. Effects of fibrates on blood lipids are mediated by
a. Inhibiting both synthesis and esterification of fatty acids
b. Their interaction with peroxisome proliferators-activated receptors (PPARs)
c. Reducing the conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate
d. Sequestering bile acids
37. A patient showing muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, tremors and postural instability was administered levo-dopa. Which of the properties of levo-dopa is not true?
a. Levo-dopa is preferred over dopamine because it can cross the blood brain barrier.
b. Levo-dopa is the levorotatory stereoisomer of 3, 4-dihydroxy phenylalanine.
c. Levo-dopa gets decarboxylated in the brain to dopamine.
d. Levo-dopa is administered because of its strong antagonistic action on dopamine receptors.
38. A Cardioselective beta blocker with vasodilating properties is
a. Pindolol
b. Atenolol
c. Bisoprolol
d. Nebivolol
39. Acute migraine is treated with
a. Prazosin
b. Formeterol
c. Sumatriptan
d. Dopamine
40. Increased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with decreased serum levels of
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Triglycerides
d. VLDL
41. An inorganic ion which is used prophylactically in bipolar depression is
a. Valproate
b. Lithium
c. Chromium
d. Valium
42. Autoimmunity refers to
a. an automatic trigger of the immune system directed against a specific pathogen.
B. failure to distinguish between self & non-self
C. an automatic segregation of T and B cells.
D. failure of B-cells to interact with T-cells.
43. Antihypoprothrombinemic effect of one stereochemical form is two to five times more than others
a. (S)-(+) – Warfarin
b. ® – (+) – Warfarin
c. (S)-(-) – Warfarin
d. (RS) – Warfarin
44. Intermediates in the biosynthesis of cholesterol are
a. Mevalonic acid and isopentenyl pyrophosphate
b. Mevalonic acid and aldosterone
c. Isoprenaline and aldosterone
d. Isoprenaline and isopentenyl phosphate
45. Metoclopramide is generally used for
a. Prophylaxis of vomiting
b. Preventing motion sickness
c. Treating irritable bowel syndrome
d. Treatment of pancreatic insufficiency
46. Sulphonamides do not have adverse drug interaction with
a. Oral anticoagulants
b. Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents
c. Hydantoin anticonvulsants
d. Dihydrofolate reductase inhibitors
47. Simvastatin belongs to
a. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of antilipidemic agents
b. HMG CoA reductase inhibitor type of anticoagulant agents
c. Fibrate type of anticoagulant agents
d. Fibrate type of antilipidemic agents
48. The drug which increases the plasma concentration of digoxin by a pharmacokinetic mechanism is
a. Lidocaine
b. Captopril
c. Quinidine
d. Hydrochlorthiazide
49. An NMDA antagonist introduced for treatment of Alzheimer’s disease is
a. Dopamine
b. Nor-epinephrine
c. Serotonin
d. Memantine
50. Interleukins are
a. Polypeptide cytokines important in the inflammatory cascade
b. Prostaglandins that account for gastrointestinal disorders
c. Enkephalins which are specific for asthma
d. Dipeptides which have antimicrobial properties
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