Remix education
pharmacyTopic wise MCQs

Pharmacology of ANS, PNS & Autacoids (Part:- 5) MCQs with Answers

51. d-TC (d-Tubocurare. is a :
a. Ganglion blocker
b. Depolarizing blocker
c. Competitive neuromuscular block
d. a+c both

52. β-blockers are used in all, except :
a. Hypertension
b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Variant angina
d. All of the above

53. Which is the shortest acting mydratic :
a. Atropine
b. Homatropine

c. Tropicamide
d. Cyclopentolate

54. Mediator of asthma is :
a. Prostacyclin
b. PGA2
c. Thromboxane A2
d. Leukotriene

55. Edrophonium test is used in :
a. Cushing syndrome
b. Conn’s syndrome
c. Addison’s disease
d. Myasthenia gravis

56. Which causes competitive block :
a. Pancuronium
b. D-Tubocurare
c. Suxamethonium
d. Gallamine

57. All are β2 agonist except :
a. Methoxamine α1 agonist
b. Salbutamol
c. Metoproterenol
d. Terbutaline

58. Treatment for headache in patient of peptic ulcer is :
a. Propoxyphene
b. Paracetamol
c. Ultrafine aspirin
d. Oxyphenbutazone

59. All are centrally acting muscle relaxant, except :
a. Dantrolene
b. Diazepam
c. Mephenesin
d. Methocarbamol

60. Epinephrine is drug of choice in :
a. Shock
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Hypertension
d. Hyperthyroidism

61. Action of H2 blocker is delayed by :
a. Food
b. Antacids
c. Alcohol

62. Latanoprost is :
a. Antidiabetic
b. Antileprotic
c. Antihypertensive
d. Antiglaucoma

63. Selective β1 antagonist is :
a. Timolol
b. Labetolol
c. Propranolol
d. Atenolol

64. Which of the following cardioselective β blocker has membrane stabilizing action :
a. Atenolol
b. Acetutolol
c. Esmolol
d. Sotalol

65. Actions of atropine are A/E :
a. CNS stimulant
b. Mydriasis
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Decreasing salivary secretion

66. Which drug has both partial agonistic action and membrane stabilizing action :
a. Oxprenolol
b. Atenolol
c. Metoprolol
d. Esmolol

67. Following are competitive neuromuscular blockers except :
a. d-tubocurarine
b. Atracurium
c. Gallamine
d. Suxamethonium

68. Propranolol is used in A/E :
a. Hypertension
b. Thyrotoxicosis
c. Migraine
d. Variant angina

69. Following drugs cross BBB except :
a. Diphenyldramine
b. Meclizine
c. Promethazine
d. Terfenadine

70. Dopamine used in shock causes :
a. Decreases resistance in renal and mesentericvasculature
b. Improves blood supply to heart
c. Improves blood supply to brain
d. Improves blood supply to muscle and brain

71. Selective M1 receptor blocker is :
a. Pirenzepine
b. Ipratropium bromide
c. Dicyclomine
d. Propantheline

72. True in cyproheptadine are A/E :
a. Antihistaminic
b. Increase appetite
c. Antipruritic
d. Antiadrenergic

73. Palidoxime acts by :
a. Reactivating cholinesterase
b. Promoting synthesis of cholinesterase
c. Promoting synthesis of acetylcholine
d. Direct action on cholinergic receptors

74. Most potent preoperative antiementic is :
a. Hyoscine
b. Atropine
c. Glycopyrrolate
d. Chlorpromazine

75. β1 adrenergic blocker is :
a. Atenolol
b. Butoxamine
c. Propranolal
d. Nadolol

76. The regional arterial resistance of mesentry and kidney vessels is reduced by :
a. Dopamine
b. Dobutamine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Isoprenaline

77. True about nicotinic acid are A/E :
a. Activates fibrinolysis
b. Ganglion receptor blocker
c. Peripheral vasodilation
d. S/E is hyperpigmentation

78. Post operative muscular pain are seen after use of :
a. Suxamethonium
b. d-tubocurarine
c. Gallamine
d. Vecuronium

79. Which of the following drug have favorable effect on lipid profile :
a. Propranolol
b. Prazosin
c. Chlorthiazide
d. Furesemide

80. Which drug is used to increase flow of urine in a patient with BHP is :
a. Propranolol
b. Imipramine
c. Disopyramide
d. Prazosin

81. The drug which causes mydriasis but not cycloplegia :
a. Phenylephrine
b. Atropine
c. Homatropine
d. Tropicamide

82. Dopamine agonist cause :
a. Inhibition of prolactin
b. Stimulation of prolactin
c. Increased production in blood
d. I production sensitivity

83. Which drug is given to a patient presenting with glaucoma oedema and epilepsy is
a. Carbamazepine
b. Acetazolamide
c. Thiazide
d. Phenobarbitone

84. Mechanism of action of clonidine as :
a. α 1-agonist
b. α2-agonist
c. β1-agonist
d. β2-agonist

85. Drug used in hypertension with intermittent claudication :
a. Propranolol
b. Nadolol
c. Atenolol
d. Practolol

86. Ipatropium bromide is :
a. Sympatholytic
b. Anticholinergic
c. Antiemetic
d. Antipsychotic

87. Following is example of ultra short acting barbiturates are A/H
a. Thiopentone
b. Hexobarbitone
c. Methohexitone
d. Butobarbitone short acting + secobarbitone

88. Intravenous Amphotericin-B- is Treatment of choice in :
a. Onychomycosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Cutaneous larva migrans
d. Cryptococcal meningitis

89. Treatment of Herpes Simplex Keratitis used A/E :
a. Idoxuridine
b. 5-FU
c. Adenosine arabinoside
d. Cytosine arabinoside

90. Botulinum acts by :
a. Secretion of Ach
b. Synthesis of Ach
c. Inhibits Ach release
d. Muscle nerve block

91. Sweat gland function is mediated by :
a. Sympathetic cholinergic
b. Sympathetic adrenergic
c. Parasympathetic
d. Dopaminergic receptors

92. The sub-type of cardiac muscarinic receptor is predominantly :
a. M1
b. M3
c. M2
d. M1 and M3

93. Nicotinic receptors are seen in :
a. Skeletal muscle
b. Visceral smooth muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Salivary glands

94. Hexamethonium is a :
a. Parasympathetic blocker
b. Sympathetic blocker
c. Nicotinic blocker
d. All of the above

95. Therapeutic use of acetylcholine is not possible because it is :
a. Highly protein bound
b. Rapidly degraded
c. Rapidly excreted
d. Orally ineffective

96. Neostigmine does not cross blood brain barrier due to its :
a. Secondary structure
b. Tertiary structure
c. Quartenary structure
d. Primary structure

97. Timolol is :
a. Antihypertensive drug
b. Antiglaucoma drug
c. Cholinergic drug
d. None

98. Antidote for organophosphorus poisoning is :
a. Atropine
b. Neostigmine
c. Succinylcholine
d. d-tubocurarine

99. Atropine does not inhibit which secretion :
a. Tear
b. Salvia
c. Gl Secretion
d. Bile

100. Hyoscine differs from atropine in that hyoscine does not cause :
a. Mydriasis
b. Drowsiness
c. Dryness of mouth
d. Tachycardia


  • 51. d. a+c both
  • 52. b. Thyrotoxicosis
  • 53. c. Tropicamide
  • 54. d. Leukotriene
  • 55. d. Myasthenia …
  • 56. b. D-Tubocurare
  • 57. d. Terbutaline
  • 58. a. Propoxyphene
  • 59. a. Dantrolene
  • 60. a. Shock
  • 61. b. Antacids4
  • 62. d. Antiglaucoma
  • 63. d. Atenolol
  • 64. b. Acetutolol
  • 65. c. Bronchoco …
  • 66. a. Oxprenolol
  • 67. d. Suxamethonium
  • 68. d. Varient angina
  • 69. d. Terfenadine
  • 70. a. Decreases …
  • 71. a. Pirenzepine
  • 72. d. Antiadrenergic
  • 73. a. Reactivating …
  • 74. a. Hyosine
  • 75. a. Atenolol
  • 76. a. Dopamine
  • 77. b. Ganglion …
  • 78. a. Suxamethonium
  • 79. b. Prazocine
  • 80. d. Prazocine
  • 81. a. Phenylephrine
  • 82. a. Inhibition …
  • 83. b. Acetazolamide
  • 84. b. α2-agonist
  • 85. c. Atenolol
  • 86. b. Anticholinergic
  • 87. d. Butobarbitone …
  • 88. d. Cryptococcal …
  • 89. b. 5-FU
  • 90. c. Inhibits Ach …
  • 91. a. Sympathetic …
  • 92. c. M2
  • 93. a. Skeletal …
  • 94. c. Nicotinic …
  • 95. b. Rapidly …
  • 96. c. Quartenary …
  • 97. b. Antiglaucoma …
  • 98. a. Atropine
  • 99. d. Bile
  • 100. a. Mydriasis