Remix education
Nursing pharmacy Topic wise MCQs

The Gastrointestinal Track MCQs

1. The distance from the incisor teeth to the gastro-oesophageal junction is:

  1. A. 25 cm
  2. B. 30 cm
  3. C. 35 cm
  4. D. 40 cm

2. Oesophageal webs have the following features except:
A. They are located at lower oesophagus
B. They are associated with dysphagia
C. They are associated with chronic atrophic glossitis
D. They are associated with iron deficiency anaemia

3. Some of the common causes of haematemesis of oesophageal origin are as follows except:
A. Oesophageal varices
B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
C. Reflux oesophagitis
D. Oesophageal rupture

4. Some common conditions predisposing to reflux oesophagitis are as follows except:

  1. A. Hiatus hernia
  2. B. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
  3. C. Peptic ulcers
  4. D. Persistent vomiting

5. The nature of lesion in Barrett’s oesophagus is:
A. Congenital anomaly
B. Inflammatory disease
C. Metaplastic process
D. Neoplastic lesion

6. Barrett’s oesophagus predisposes to development of:

  1. A. Reflux oesophagitis
  2. B. Oesophageal varices
  3. C. Squamous cell carcinoma
  4. D. Adenocarcinoma

7. The most frequent anatomic site for squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus is:
A. Upper third
B. Middle third
C. Lower third
D. Gastro-oesophageal junction

8. H. pylori gastritis has the following features except:
A. H. pylori is seen on the epithelial layer of the luminal surface
B. H. pylori is seen on areas with intestinal metaplasia
C. H. pylori does not invade the mucosa
D. H. pylori gastritis may lead to malignant transformation

9. Patients of benign gastric ulcer generally have:
A. High gastric acid
B. Normal-to-high gastric acid
C. Normal-to-low gastric acid
D. Absence of gastric acid

10. Duodenal ulcers are found most commonly at:
A. First part, anterior surface
B. First part, posterior surface
C. Second part, anterior surface
D. Second part, posterior surface

11. The most common location for gastric colloid carcinoma is:

  1. A. Cardia
  2. B. Fundus
  3. C. Body
  4. D. Pylorus

12. The most common gross growth pattern of gastric carcinoma is:

  1. A. Scirrhous
  2. B. Fungating
  3. C. Ulcerative
  4. D. Colloid

13. Meckel’s diverticulum is commonly located at:
A. Mesenteric border of small intestine one meter above ileocaecal valve
B. Mesenteric border of small intestine two meter above ileocaecal valve
C. Antimesenteric border of small intestine one meter above ileocaecal valve
D. Antimesenteric border of small intestine two meter above ileocaecal valve

14. The remnants of vitellointestinal duct are in the form of following lesions except:

  1. A. Vitelline sinus
  2. B. Vitelline cyst
  3. C. Omphalocele
  4. D. Meckel’s diverticulum

15. Following humoral factors are implicated in the etiology of inflammatory bowel disease except:
A. Anti-colon antibodies to E. coli
B. Decreased synthesis of IgG
C. IgE-mediated hypersensitivity
D. Circulating immune complexes

16. Crohn’s disease is characterised by the following histopathologic features except:
A. Non-caseating sarcoid like granulomas
B. Superficial mucosal ulceration
C. Stricture formation in chronic cases
D. Widening of submucosa due to oedema

17. The following features characterise ulcerative colitis except:
A. Formation of crypt abscess and cryptitis
B. Superficial mucosal ulceration
C. Depletion of goblet cells and mucus
D. Stricture formation in chronic cases

18. Long-standing cases of Crohn’s disease may develop the following complications except:

  1. A. Malabsorption
  2. B. Toxic megacolon
  3. C. Fistula formation
  4. D. Stricture formation

19. Tuberculous ulcers in bowel have the following features except:
A. They begin in the Peyer’s patches
B. They are transverse to the long axis
C. Advanced cases may cause intestinal obstruction
D. Tuberculous ulcers often cause intestinal perforation

20. The major complication of typhoid ulcer is:

  1. A. Intestinal obstruction
  2. B. Intestinal perforation
  3. C. Malabsorption
  4. D. Fistula formation

21. Pseudomembranous enterocolitis occurs most often in association with the following:

  1. A. Shigella dysentery
  2. B. Candida enterocolitis
  3. C. Cephalosporin antibiotics
  4. D. Clostridial food poisoning

22. Common causes of total/subtotal villous atrophy are as follows except:

  1. A. Crohn’s disease
  2. B. Tropical sprue
  3. C. Nontropical sprue
  4. D. Intestinal lymphoma

23. The nature of Whipple’s disease is:

  1. A. Genetic defect
  2. B. Familial occurrence
  3. C. Bacterial infection
  4. D. Hypersensitivity reaction

24. The most common location for carcinoid tumour is:
A. Foregut
B. Midgut
C. Hindgut
D. Equal at all these three sites

25. The histologic hallmark of diagnosis of acute appendicitis is:
A. Mucosal ulceration
B. Impacted foreign body
C. Neutrophilic infiltrate in muscularis
D. Thrombosed blood vessels

26. Out of various patterns of Hirschsprung’s disease, the most common is:
A. Total colonic aganglionosis
B. Long segment disease
C. Short segment disease
D. Ultra short segment disease

27. The following type of colorectal polyps has the maximum incidence of malignant transformation:

  1. A. Hyperplastic polyp
  2. B. Adenomatous
  3. C. Villous adenoma
  4. D. Tubulovillous adenoma

28. The most common location for primary colorectal carcinoma is:
A. Rectum
B. Sigmoid and descending colon
C. Caecum and ileocaecal valve
D. Ascending colon

29. Elevation of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level is particularly significant in:
A. Early lesion of colorectal carcinoma
B. Advanced primary colorectal carcinoma
C. Metastatic colorectal carcinoma
D. Ulcerative colitis

30. Intra-abdominal desmoplastic small cell tumour is a:

  1. A. Benign tumour
  2. B. Fibromatosis
  3. C. Tumour-like lesion
  4. D. Highly malignant tumour

31. The significant genetic mutations in adenoma-carcinoma sequence are all the following except:

  1. A. Loss of APC gene
  2. B. Deletion of DCC gene
  3. C. Mutated RB gene
  4. D. Mutation in K-RAS gene

32. H. pylori colonisation of gastric mucosa is implicated in the following diseases except:

  1. A. Gastritis
  2. B. Gastric carcinoma
  3. C. MALT lymphoma
  4. D. Intestinal metaplasia

33. Which of the following is not implicated in oesophageal carcinoma?

  1. A. HPV infection
  2. B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome
  3. C. Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
  4. D. Heavy smoking

34. In gastric ulcer, BAO and MAO are:
A. Normal
B. Elevated
C. Absent
D. Markedly decreased but not absent

35. Which classification system is used for gastritis?

  1. A. Bethesda system
  2. B. Geneva system
  3. C. Sydney system
  4. D. WHO system

36. Partial villous atrophy is seen in all except:

  1. A. Crohn’s disease
  2. B. Parasitic infestation
  3. C. Drugs
  4. D. Tropical sprue

37. Most common malignant tumour of the small intestine is:

  1. A. Carcinoid tumour
  2. B. Lymphoma
  3. C. Adenocarcinoma
  4. D. Malignant GIST

38. All are hamartomatous polyps except:

  1. A. Juvenile polyps
  2. B. Peutz-Jeghers polyps
  3. C. Retention polyps
  4. D. Metaplastic polyps

39. Which of the following is not familial polyposis syndrome?
A. Cronkhite Canada syndrome
B. Gardner’s syndrome
C. Turcot’s syndrome
D. Juvenile polyposis syndrome

40. Disease predisposing locus implicated in Crohn’s disease:

  1. A. CARD 15
  2. B. CARD 14
  3. C. CARD 24
  4. D. CARD 25

Answers Key
1) = D 2) = A 3) = C 4) = B 5) = C 6) = D 7) = B 8) = B 9) = C 10) = A 11) = B 12) = C 13) = C 14) = C 15) = B 16) = B 17) = D 18) = B 19) = D 20) = B 21) = C 22) = A 23) = C 24) = B 25) = C 26) = C 27) = C 28) = A 29) = C 30) = D 31) = C 32) = D 33) = B 34) = A 35) = C 36) = D 37) = A 38) = D 39) = A 40) = A