Remix education
pharmacyTopic wise MCQs

Disorders of Leucocytes and Lymphoreticular Tissues MCQs with Answers

1. The following myeloid cells partake in mitosis except :

  1. A. Myelocytes
  2. B. Metamyelocytes
  3. C. Promyelocytes D. Myeloblast

2. Basophils are increased in:

  1. A. Bronchial asthma
  2. B. CML
  3. C. Angioneurotic oedema
  4. D. Corticosteroid therapy

3. Heterophile antibody used to detect EBV infection in infectious mononucleosis is:

  1. A. IgA
  2. B. IgD
  3. C. IgG
  4. D. IgM

4. Atypical lymphoid cells (mononucleosis cells) in infectious
mononucleosis are:

  1. A. Monocytes
  2. B. CD8 + T lymphocytes
  3. C. Killer T cells
  4. D. B-lymphocytes

5. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) scores are elevated in:
A. AML
B. CML
C. Myeloid metaplasia
D. Myeloid leukaemoid reaction

6. Radiation exposure is related to the following types of leukaemias except:

  1. A. AML
  2. B. CML
  3. C. ALL
  4. D. CLL

7. Gum hypertrophy is a feature of the following FAB type of AML:

  1. A. FAB type M1
  2. B. FAB type M2
  3. C. FAB type M3
  4. D. FAB type M4

8. Which of the following is not a type of paracortical lymphoid hyperplasia:
A. Castleman’s disease
B. Angioimmunoblastic lymphadenopathy
C. Dermatopathic lymphadenopathy
D. Dilantin lymphadenopathy

9. Auer rods are derived from:

  1. A. RNA
  2. B. DNA
  3. C. Primary granules
  4. D. Secondary granules

10. What is not true about Pelger-Huet anomaly:
A. Autosomal dominant
B. May be acquired
C. Is characterised by bilobed neutrophils
D. Causes severe impairment of neutrophil function

11. Philadelphia chromosome is characterised by:

  1. A. t(8;14)
  2. B. t(9;22)
  3. C. t(22;9)
  4. D. t(14;8)

12. Tumours causing secondary polycythaemia include all except :

  1. A. Renal cell carcinoma
  2. B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  3. C. Oat cell carcinoma
  4. D. Uterine leiomyoma

13. Mutation characteristic for polycythaemia vera is:

  1. A. JAK2 mutation
  2. B. Bcr-abl mutation
  3. C. p53 mutation
  4. D. RAS mutation

14. Difference between RAEB-1 and RAEB-2 is:
A. Blood cytopenia in RAEB-2
B. Marrow blasts 5-9% in RAEB-2
C. Marrow blasts 10-19% in RAEB-2
D. Presence of ringed sideroblasts in RAEB-2

15. Isotretinoin treatment is effective in which acute leukemia:

  1. A. ALL
  2. B. AML-M2
  3. C. AML-M6
  4. D. AML-M3

16. Which of the following is not included in classic Hodgkin’s disease:
A. Nodular lymphocyte predominant HD
B. Lymphocyte depletion HD
C. Mixed cellularity HD
D. Nodular sclerosis HD

17. Which of the following is a specific marker for hairy cell?

  1. A. CD22
  2. B. CD5
  3. C. CD103
  4. D. CD8

18. Leukemic stage of cutaneous T cell lymphoma is called:

  1. A. Hairy cell leukemia
  2. B. Adult T cell leukemia
  3. C. Mycosis fungoides
  4. D. Sezary syndrome

19. A 40-year-old woman presents with increasing weakness and lethargy. Her peripheral white cell count is markedly elevated, and her leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score is markedly decreased. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most likely in such a case?

  1. A. t(9;22)
  2. B. t(11;14)
  3. C. t(14;18)
  4. D. t(15;17)

20. A 16 years old boy has sore throat, enlarged tender cervical lymphadenopathy, and low-grade fever for one week. On exami – nation, he has splenomegaly. His CBC shows TLC 20,000/µl and DLC 14, 80, 5, 1, 0. What is the possible diagnosis?

  1. A. Acute lymphocytic leukaemia
  2. B. Hodgkin’s disease
  3. C. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
  4. D. Infectious mononucleosis

Answers Key
1) = B, 2) = B, 3) = D, 4) = C, 5) = D, 6) = D, 7) = D, 8) = A , 9) = C , 10) = D, 11) = B, 12) = C, 13) = A, 14) = C, 15) = D, 16) = A, 17) = C, 18) = D, 19) = A, 20) = D

Leave a review