51. Select the drug which is a potassium channel opener as well as nitric oxide donor:
A. Diazoxide
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Minoxidil
D. Nicorandil
Ans. D
52. Though nitrates and calcium channel blockers are both vasodilators, they are used concurrently in angina pectoris, because:
A. They antagonise each other’s side effects
B. Nitrates primarily reduce preload while calcium channel blockers primarily reduce after-load
C. Nitrates increase coronary flow while calcium channel blockers reduce cardiac work
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correct
Ans. B
53. Select structure of Hydralazine
54. The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-term is:
A. Reduction of circulating blood volume
B. Reduction in cardiac output
C. Decreased sympathetic tone
D. Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance and improved compliance of resistance Vessels
Ans. D
55. Rapid intravenous injection of clonidine causes rise in BP due to:
A. Stimulation of vasomotor centre
B. Release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings
C. Agonistic action on vascular α adrenergic receptors
D. Cardiac stimulation
Ans. C
56. Methyldopa lowers BP by:
A. Inhibiting dopa decarboxylase in adrenergic nerve endings
B. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline in brain which reduces sympathetic tone
C. Generating α-methyl noradrenaline which acts as a false transmitter in peripheral adrenergic nerve endings
D. Activating vascular dopamine receptors
Ans. B
57. Methyldopa differs from clonidine in the following respect:
A. It is less likely to cause rebound hypertension on sudden discontinuation
B. It does not reduce plasma renin activity
C. It has a central as well as peripheral site of antihypertensive action
D. It does not produce central side effects
Ans. A
58. Used alone the following antihypertensive drug tends to increase cardiac work and can precipitate angina:
A. Clonidine
B. Hydralazine
C. Captopril
D. Prazosin
Ans. B
59. is a directly acting vasodilator, but is not used alone as an antihypertensive because:
A. By itself, it is a low efficacy antihypertensive
B. Effective doses cause marked postural hypotension
C. Tolerance to the antihypertensive action develops early due to counterregulatory mechanisms
D. It primarily reduces systolic blood pressure with little effect on diastolic blood pressure
Ans. C
60. Long-term hydralazine therapy is likely to cause:
A. Gynaecomastia
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Haemolytic anaemia
D. Lupus erythematosus
Ans. D
61. The following vasodilator(s) act(s) by opening K+ channels in the vascular smooth muscle:
A. Dipyridamole
B. Minoxidil
C. Diazoxide
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Ans. D
62. Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors are contraindicated in:
A. High renin hypertensives
B. Diabetics
C. Congestive heart failure patients
D. Pregnant women
Ans. D
63. Secretion of K+ in the late distal tubule and collecting ducts of kidney depends on:
A. Intracellular K+ content
B. Unabsorbed Na+ load presented to the distal segment
C. Aldosterone level
D. All of the above
Ans. D
64. Metformin belongs to which class?
A. Sulphonylureas
B. Meglitinide analogues
C. Biguanides
D. Thiazolidinediones
Ans. C
65. Diuretics acting on the ascending limb of loop of Henle are the most efficacious in promoting salt and water excretion because:
A. Maximum percentage of salt and water is reabsorbed in this segment
B. Reabsorptive capacity of the segments distal to it is limited
C. This segment is highly permeable to both salt and water
D. This segment is responsible for creating corticomedullary osmotic gradient
Ans. B
66. Identify general structure of Meglitinide
Ans. C
67. Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following in the renal tubular cell:
A. Na+-K+-2Cl– cotransporter
B. Na+-Cl– symporter
C. Na+-H+ antiporter
D. Na+ K+ ATPase
Ans. A
68. Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the following substance:
A. Uric acid
B. Calcium
C. Magnesium
D. Bicarbonate
Ans. B
69. The Na+-Cl– symport in the early distal convoluted tubule of the kidney is inhibited by:
A. Thiazides
B. Metolazone
C. Xipamide
D. All of the above
Ans. D
70. Choose the correct statement about thiazide diuretics:
A. They act in the proximal convoluted tubule
B. They are uricosuric
C. They augment corticomedullary osmotic gradient
D. They induce diuresis in acidosis as well as alkalosis
Ans. D
71. Thiazide diuretics enhance K+ elimination in urine primarily by:
A. Inhibiting proximal tubular K+ reabsorption
B. Inhibiting Na+ K+-2Cl– cotransport in the ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Increasing the availability of Na+ in the distal tubular fluid to exchange with interstitial K+
D. Potentiating the action of aldosterone
Ans. C
72. The primary site of action of thiazide diuretics is:
A. Proximal tubule
B. Ascending limb of loop of Henle
C. Cortical diluting segment
D. Collecting ducts
Ans. C
73. The most important reason for the thiazides being only moderately efficacious diuretics is:
A. About 9/10th of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed proximal to their site of action
B. Compensatory increase in reabsorption at sites not affected by these drugs
C. They decrease glomerular filtration
D. They have relatively flat dose response curve
Ans. A
74. Given drug is
A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Ethacrinic acid
Ans. C
75. Long-term thiazide therapy can cause hyperglycaemia by:
A. Reducing insulin release
B. Interfering with glucose utilization in tissues
C. Increasing sympathetic activity
D. Increasing corticosteroid secretion
Ans. A
76. Which of the following is a potassium retaining diuretic:
A. Triamterene
B. Trimethoprim
C. Tizanidine
D. Trimetazidine
Ans. A
77. Choose the correct statement about osmotic diuretics:
A. They are large molecular weight substances which form colloidal solution
B. Their primary site of action is collecting ducts in the kidney
C. They increase water excretion without increasing salt excretion
D. They can lower intraocular pressure
Ans. D
78. The primary mechanism by which antidiuretic hormone reduces urine volume is:
A. Decrease in glomerular filtration rate
B. Decreased renal blood flow
C. Decreased water permeability of descending limb of loop of Henle
D. Increased water permeability of collecting duct cells
Ans. D
79. The primary mechanism by which heparin prevents coagulation of blood is:
A. Direct inhibition of prothrombin to thrombin conversion
B. Facilitation of antithrombin III mediated inhibition of factor Xa and thrombin
C. Activation of antithrombin III to inhibit factors IX and XI
D. Inhibition of factors XIIa and XIIIa
Ans. B
80. Low concentrations of heparin selectively interfere with the following coagulation pathway(s):
A. Intrinsic pathway
B. Extrinsic pathway
C. Common pathway
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Ans. A
81. Low doses of heparin prolong:
A. Bleeding time
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
C. Prothrombin time
D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
Ans. B
82. Low molecular weight heparins differ from unfractionated heparin in that:
A. They selectively inhibit factor Xa
B. They do not significantly prolong clotting time
C. They are metabolized slowly and have longer duration of action
D. All of the above are correct
Ans. D
83. Low molecular weight heparins have the following advantages over unfractionated heparin except:
A. Higher efficacy in arterial thrombosis
B. Less frequent dosing
C. Higher and more consistent subcutaneous bioavailability
D. Laboratory monitoring of response not required
Ans. A
84. Identify structure of Glipizide.
85. Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide.
86. Choose the drug of which IUPAC name is 1,1-dimethylbiguanide.
A. Glipizide
B. Metformin
C. Pioglitazone
D. Tolbutamide
Ans. B
87. Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen:
A. Urokinase
B. Streptokinase
C. Alteplase
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Ans. C
88. The most important complication of streptokinase therapy is:
A. Hypotension
B. Bleeding
C. Fever
D. Anaphylaxis
Ans. B
89. Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by inhibiting the synthesis of:
A. Clotting factors in liver
B. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium
C. Cyclic AMP in platelets
D. Thromboxane A2 in platelets
Ans. D
90. The following is true of clopidogrel except:
A. It is a GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist
B. It inhibits fibrinogen induced platelet aggregation
C. It is indicated for prevention of stroke in patients with transient ischaemic attacks
D. It is a prodrug
Ans. A
91. Choose the most potent and most efficacious LDL cholesterol lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor:
A. Lovastatin
B. Simvastatin
C. Pravastatin
D. Atorvastatin
Ans. D
92. Select the most appropriate hypolipidemic drug for a patient with raised LDL-cholesterol level but normal triglyceride level:
A. A HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
B. A fibric acid derivative
C. Gugulipid
D. Nicotinic acid
Ans. A
93. Identify structure of Pioglitazone
94. Select the hypolipidemic drug that enhances lipoprotein synthesis, fatty acid oxidation and LDLreceptor expression in liver through paroxisome proliferator-activated receptor α
A. Lovastatin
B. Atorvastatin
C. Bezafibrate
D. Nicotinic acid
Ans. C
95. Plasma expanders are used in the following conditions except:
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Extensive burns
C. Mutilating injuries
D. Endotoxin shock
(Note: They will increase circulating blood volume and thus preload on heart, which will worsen heart failure.)
Ans. A
96. Trapping of iodide by the following organ/organs is enhanced by thyrotropin:
A. Thyroid
B. Salivary gland
C. Placenta
D. All of the above
Ans. A
97. Triiodothyronine differs from thyroxine in that:
A. It is more avidly bound to plasma proteins
B. It has a shorter plasma half life
C. It is less potent
D. It has a longer latency of action
Ans. B
98. The most reliable guide to adjustment of thyroxine dose in a patient of hypothyroidism is:
A. Pulse rate
B. Body weight
C. Serum thyroxine level
D. Serum TSH level
Ans. D
99. Actions of thyroxine include the following except:
A. Induction of negative nitrogen balance
B. Reduction in plasma cholesterol level
C. Fall in plasma free fatty acid level
D. Rise in blood sugar level
Ans. C
100. acts by inhibiting:
A. Iodide trapping
B. Oxidation of iodide
C. Proteolysis of thyroglobulin
D. Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein
Ans. B
101. Antithyroid drugs exert the following action:
A. Inhibit thyroxine synthesis
B. Block the action of thyroxine on pituitary
C. Block the action of TSH on thyroid
D. Block the action of thyroxine on peripheral tissues
Ans. A
102. Given structure is of
A. Propyl thiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Radioactive iodine
Ans. B
103. The following thyroid inhibitor interferes with peripheral conversion of thyroxine to triiodothyronine:
A. Propyl thiouracil
B. Methimazole
C. Carbimazole
D. Radioactive iodine
Ans. A
104. The uses of sodium/potassium iodide include the following except:
A. Preoperative preparation of Grave’s disease patient
B. Prophylaxis of endemic goiter
C. As antiseptic
D. As expectorant
Ans. C
105. The physical half life of radioactive 131I is:
A. 8 hours
B. 8 days
C. 16 days
D. 60 days
Ans. B
106. Propranolol is used in hyperthyroidism:
A. As short-term symptomatic therapy till effect of carbimazole develops
B. As long-term therapy after subtotal thyroidectomy
C. In patients not responding to carbimazole
D. To potentiate the effect of radioactive iodine
Ans. A
107. Insulin release from pancreatic β cells is augmentednby the following except:
A. Ketone bodies
B. Glucagon
C. Vagal stimulation
D. Alfa adrenergic agonists
Ans. D
108. Action of Insulin does not include the following:
A. Facilitation of glucose transport into cells
B. Facilitation of glycogen synthesis by liver
C. Facilitation of neoglucogenesis by liver
D. Inhibition of lipolysis in adipose tissue
Ans. C
109. The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:
A. Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes
B. Hyperinsulinemia
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to severe cases
Ans. D
110. Glucose entry into the cells of the following organ/tissue is highly dependent on the presence of
insulin:
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Adipose tissue
D. Kidney tubules
Ans. C
111. Clofibrate is synthesized from
A. o-chloro phenol
B. m-chloro phenol
C. p-chloro phenol
D. 3,4, -dichloro phenol
Ans. C
112. 6-Chloro-3,4-dihydro-2H-1,2,4-benzothiadiazine-7-sulfonamide 1,1-dioxide is IUPAC name of
A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Ethacrinic acid
Ans. A
113. Hydrazine hydrate is precursor for synthesis of
A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Ethacrinic acid
Ans. B
114. IUPAC name of given drug is
A. Benzoic acid, 5- (aminosulphonyl)-4-chloro-2-[(2-furanyl 1-methyl) amino]
B. Benzoic acid, 3- (aminosulphonyl)-4-chloro-2-[(2-furanyl 1-methyl) amino]
C. Benzoic acid, 5- (aminosulphonyl)-3-chloro-2-[(2-furanyl 1-methyl) amino]
D. Benzoic acid, 3- (aminosulphonyl)-3-chloro-2-[(2-furanyl 1-methyl) amino]
Ans. A
115. The structure of steroids is based on the ____________________skeleton.
A. 1,2-cyclopentanophenanthrene
B. 1,2-cyclohexanophenanthrene
C. 1,3-cyclopentanophenanthrene
D. 1,3-cyclohexanophenanthrene
Ans. A
116. 2-(2,3-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid) and butyryl chloride are precursors for synthesis of
A. Hydrochlorthiazide
B. Acetazolamide
C. Furosemide
D. Ethacrinic acid
Ans. D
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Subject:- Medicinal Chemistry 4 MCQs with Answers
Semester:-8th sem, sem 8
