1. In cardiac glycoside, position of β- unsaturated lactone ring is
A. C – 3
B. C – 14
C. C – 17
D. C – 23
Ans. C
2. Activity of cardiac glycoside depends to a great extent on
A. 23rd carbonyl oxygen
B. C – 3 OH
C. Side chain at C – 14
D. Side chain at C – 17
Ans. A
3. Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure by:
A. Direct vasoconstriction
B. Releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla
C. Increasing central sympathetic tone
D. All of the above
Ans. D
4. Identify structure of Nifedipine.
Ans. A
5. Digitalis slows the heart in congestive heart failure by:
A. Increasing vagal tone
B. Decreasing sympathetic overactivity
C. Direct depression of sinoatrial node
D. All of the above
Ans. D
6. Methyldopa is
A. Parasympathomimetic
B. Parasympatholytic
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Sympatholytic
Ans. D
7. Losartan is
A. Renin release blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Angiotension I blocker
D. Angiotension II blocker
Ans. C
8.
is
A. Renin release blocker
B. ACE inhibitor
C. Angiotension I blocker
D. Angiotension II blocker
Ans. A
9. IUPAC name of Dobutamine is
A.4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol
B. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)butan-2-yl]amino}methyl)benzene-1,2-diol
C.4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl)propan-2-yl]amino}ethyl)benzene-1,2-diol
D. 4-(2-{[4-(4-hydroxyphenyl) propan -2-yl]amino}methyl)benzene-1,2-diol
Ans. A
10. 1-[4-(2-methoxyethyl)phenoxy]-3-[(propan-2-yl)amino]propan-2-ol is IUPAC name of
A. Atenolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Captopril
D. Hydralazine
Ans. B
11. Hydralazine is synthesized from
A. 2-formyl benzoic acid and Hydrazine
B. Methacrylic acid
C. 2-azidoethanol
D. o-nitro toluene
Ans. A
12. The principal action common to all class I antiarrhythmic drugs is:
A. Na+ channel blockade
B. K+ channel opening
C. Depression of impulse conduction
D. Prolongation of effective refractory period
Ans. A
13. Identify high ceiling diuretic.
A. Chlorthiazide
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Amiloride
Ans. B
14. _____________ is carboxylic acid moiety containing.
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Bepridil
Ans. B
15. Given structure is of
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Bepridil
Ans. B
16. _____________ is sulfhydryl moiety containing.
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Fosinopril
D. Bepridil
Ans. A
17. Given drug is
A. α blocker
B. β blocker
C. K + channel blocker
D. Ca++ channel blocker
Ans. D
18. The antiarrhythmic drug which decreases both rate of depolarization (phase 0) as well as rate of repolarization (phase 3) of myocardial fibres is:
A. Lignocaine
B. Propranolol
C. Quinidine
D. Verapamil
Ans.C
19. The following drug is used to reduce the frequency of angina pectoris as well as to terminate an acute attack:
A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Pentaerythritol tetranitrate
C. Diltiazem
D. Dipyridamole
Ans. A
20. Blood flow in the following vascular bed generally decreases under the influence of glyceryl trinitrate:
A. Coronary
B. Cutaneous
C. Renal
D. Cranial
Ans.C
21. Phase II in cardiac action potential is
A. Fast depolarization
B. Partial repolarization
C. Plateau
D. Repolarization
Ans. C
22. In HMG-CoA-Reductase Inhibitors, Lactone ring may be substituted at
A. C- 15
B. C- 16
C. C-17
D. C -18
Ans. C
23. 2-(diethylamino)-N-(2,6-dimethylphenyl) Acetamide is IUPAC name of
1. Flecainide
2. Atenolol
3. Verapamil
4. Lignocaine
Ans. D
24. Select the organic nitrate which undergoes minimal first-pass metabolism in the liver:
A. Glyceryl trinitrate
B. Isosorbide dinitrate
C. Isosorbide mononitrate
D. Erythrityl tetranitrate
Ans.C
25. The primary mechanism of beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate in classical angina pectoris is:
A. Increase in total coronary blood flow
B. Redistribution of coronary blood flow
C. Reduction of cardiac preload
D. Reduction of cardiac afterload
Ans.C
26. Organic nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle by:
A. Increasing intracellular cyclic GMP
B. Increasing intracellular cyclic AMP
C. Decreasing intracellular cyclic AMP
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct
Ans. A
27. Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of:
A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate
B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Ans. B
28. Glyceryl trinitrate is administered by the following routes except:
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
Ans. C
29. Myocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic:
A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels
C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels
D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
Ans. A
30. Hypothyroidism is a possible consequence of prolonged therapy with:
A. Amiodarone
B. Mexiletine
C. Sotalol
D. Procainamide
Ans. A
31. The following is true of procainamide except:
A. It generates an active metabolite in the body
B. Its plasma half-life is longer than that of quinidine
C. On long-term use, it can cause systemic lupus erythematosus like illness
D. It is effective in many cases of ventricular extrasystoles, not responding to lignocaine
Ans. B
32. The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of is:
A. Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci
B. Prolongation of action potential duration
C. Prolongation of effective refractory period
D. Depression of membrane responsiveness
Ans. A
33. Myocardial Na+ channel blockade by lignocaine has the following characteristic:
A. It blocks inactivated Na+ channels more than activated channels
B. It blocks activated Na+ channels more than inactivated channels
C. It delays rate of recovery of Na+ channels
D. It produces more prominent blockade of atrial than ventricular Na+ channels
Ans. A
34. Quinidine is now used primarily for:
A. Conversion of atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm
B. Control of ventricular rate in atrial flutter
C. Termination of ventricular tachycardia
D. Prevention of recurrences of atrial fibrillation/ ventricular tachycardia
Ans. D
35. The following antiarrhythmic drug has the most prominent anticholinergic action:
A. Disopyramide
B. Quinidine
C. Procainamide
D. Lignocaine
Ans. A
36. The following is not true about :
A. It blocks myocardial Na+ channels primarily in the open state
B. It has no effect on myocardial K+ channels
C. It produces frequency dependent blockade of myocardial Na+ channels
D. It delays recovery of myocardial Na+ channels
Ans. B
37. Beneficial effect/effects of diuretics in CHF patients include the following:
A. Symptomatic relief
B. Regression of pathological changes
C. Prolongation of life expectancy
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’
Ans. A
38. Glyceryl trinitrate is used in CHF for:
A. Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure
B. Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure
C. Arresting disease progression
D. Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
Ans. B
39. Vasodilators are used to treat:
A. Acute heart failure attending myocardial infarction
B. Chronic heart failure due to diastolic dysfunction
C. Chronic heart failure due to both systolic as well as diastolic dysfunction
D. All of the above
Ans. D
40. Nitrate tolerance is least likely to develop with the use of:
A. Sustained release oral glyceryl trinitrate
B. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
C. Transdermal glyceryl trinitrate
D. Oral pentaerythritol tetranitrate
Ans. B
41. Given drug is administered by the following routes except:
A. Oral
B. Sublingual
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
Ans. C
42. Which of the following drugs is most likely to accentuate varient (Prinzmetal) angina?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Verapamil
D. Dipyridamole
Ans. A
43. The following antianginal drug is most likely to produce tachycardia as a side effect:
A. Amlodipine
B. Nifedipine
C. Diltiazem
D. Verapamil
Ans. B
44. The cardiac response to verapamil and nifedipine in human subjects is:
A. Verapamil causes tachycardia while nifedipine causes bradycardia
B. Both cause bradycardia
C. Verapamil causes bradycardia while nifedipine causes tachycardia
D. Both cause tachycardia
Ans. C
45. Propranolol should not be prescribed for a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving:
A. Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Ans. C
46. Given drug is
A. Nifedipine
B. Felodipine
C. Verapamil
D. Isosorbide mononitrate
Ans. C
47. The short acting dihydropyridine preparations can aggravate myocardial ischaemia by invoking:
A. Coronary vasospasm
B. Thrombus formation
C. Vagal activation
D. Reflex sympathetic discharge to the heart
Ans. D
48. Which of the following drugs is a potassium channel opener?
A. Nicorandil
B. Hydralazine
C. Glibenclamide
D. Amiloride
Ans. A
49. The characteristic feature(s) of dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers is/are:
A. They have minimal negative inotropic action on the heart
B. They have no effect on A-V conduction
C. They do not affect the activation-inactivation kinetics of the calcium channels
D. All of the above
Ans. D
50. The dihydropyridines block the following type of calcium channels:
A. L-type voltage sensitive channels
B. T-type voltage sensitive channels
C. N-type voltage sensitive channels
D. Receptor operated calcium channels
Ans. A
More links
➡️ Medicinal Chemistry IV MCQs with Answers :- Click here
➡️ Medicinal Chemistry IV MCQs with Answers (Part:- 2) :- Click here
Subject:- Medicinal Chemistry 4 MCQs with Answers
Semester:-8th sem, sem 8
