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pharmacy Topic wise MCQs

Pharmacology MCQs ( Part-6 ) with answers


51. A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is
(a) Acetazolamide
(b) Amiloride
(c) Furosemide
(d) Hydrochlorothiazide

52. Oxytremorine is a selective agonist of muscarinic _______ receptors
(a) M1
(b) M2
(c) M3
(d) M4

53. A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is
(a) Acetazolamide
(b) Amiloride
(c) Demeclocycline
(d) Desmopressin

54. Cromolyn has as its major action
(a) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes
(b) Block of mediator release from mast cells
(c) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi
(d) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals

55. Following events occur in the cytoplasm and not inside storage vesicles, except
(a) Conversion of tyrosine to dopa
(b) Conversion of dopa to dopamine
(c) Conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine
(d) Conversion of dopamine to 3, 4 dihydroxy phenyl acetic acid

56. Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia?
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Glucocorticoids
(c) Plicamycin
(d) Thiazide diuretics

57. Characteristics of Vitamin D and itsMetabolites include which one of these
(a) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium
(b) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors Increases cellular CAMP
(c) Calcitriol is the major derivative responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of phosphate
(d) Metabolites of Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium

58. Which of the following conditions is an indication for the use of calcitonin?
(a) Rickets
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
(c) Intestinal osteodystrophy
(d) Pager’s disease

59. Clinical uses of Vitamin D do not include bleeding?
(a) Chronic renal failure
(b) Hyperparathyroidism
(c) Intestinal osteodystrophy
(d) Nutritional rickets

60. Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia?
(a) Calcitonin
(b) Dihydrotachysterol
(c) Ergocalciferol
(d) Etidronate

61. If we say that Drug B has a higher therapeutic index than Drug A, it means that Drug B is:
A. more potent
B. safer
C. more efficacious
D. toxic

62. Action of norepinephrine and epinephrine are terminated by
(a) Reuptake into nerve terminal
(b) Dilution by diffusion and uptake at extra-neuronal site
(c) Metabolic transformation
(d) All of the above

63. Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following?
(a) Hypoglycemia
(b) Lipolysis
(c) Glycogen synthesis
(d) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor

64. A patient is admitted to the emergency room with orthostatic hypotension and evidence of marked GI bleeding. Which of the following most accurately describes the probable autonomic response to this
(a) Slow heart rate, dilated pupils, damp skin
(b) Rapid heart rate, dilated pupils, damp skin
(c) Slow heart rate, dry skin, increased bowel sounds
(d) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils,

65. The action of the body on the drug is known as:
A. Clinical Pharmacology
C. Pharmacotherapeutics
B. Pharmacodynamics
D. Pharmacokinetics

66. The highly acidic metabolites of the drug are mainly excreted from the body by which process?
A. Filtration
B. Passive Diffusion
C. Tubular Secretion
D. Exocytosis

67. Which of the following organs is Innervated only by parasympathetic nerves?
(a) Iris muscles
(b) Ciliary muscle
(c) Sweat glands
(d) Splenic capsule

68. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors
(a) Are located only on parasympathetically Innervated effector cells
(b) Mediate responses by opening an intrinsic Na + ion channel
(c) Are present on vascular endothelium which has no cholinergic nerve supply
(d) Predominate in the autonomic ganglia

69. The cardiac muscarinic receptors
(a) Are of the M1 subtype
(b) Are of the M2 subtype
(c) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine
(d) All of the above

70. Atropine does not exert relaxant/ antispasmodic effect on the following muscle
(a) Intestinal
(b) Bronchial
(c) Ureteric
(d) Layngeal

71. Which of these fields of pharmacology is concerned with the development of new drugs and the rational use of drugs?
A. Posology
C. Toxicology
B. Pharmacoeconomics
D. Clinical Pharmacology

72. Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it
(a) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at Relatively low doses
(b) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye
(c) Is longer acting
(d) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity

73. Which of the following anticholinergic Drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic Medication and during surgery
(a) Glycopyrrolate
(b) Pipenzolate methyl bromide
(c) Isopropamide
(d) Dicyclomine

74. Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscannic drug for use before and during surgery because
(a) It is potent and fast acting
(b) It has no central action
(c) It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions
(d) All of the above

75. Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action?
(a) Atropine
(b) Homatropine
(c) Tropicamide
(d) Cyclopentolate

76. the most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is
(a) Atropine sulfate
(b) Cyclopentolate
(c) Homatropine
(d) Tropicamide

77. Antidote for belladonna poisoning is
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Physostigmine
(c) Pilocarpine
(d) Methacholine

78. What will be the consequence of greater binding of the drug to plasma proteins?
A. Its duration of action is shortened.
B. It may require a higher drug dose.
C. Its onset of drug action is hastened.
D. It promotes rapid drug excretion

79. Which of these pharmacologic drugs does NOT produce mydriasis?
A. Isoproterenol
C. Phenylephrine
B. Atropine
D. Ephedrine

80. In minute doses, epinephrine will produce:
A. Marked increased in systolic pressure
B. Increase in diastolic pressure
C. Decrease in total peripheral resistance
D. A and B are correct

81. Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings
(a) By depolarizing the axonal membrane
(b) By mobilizing Ca 2+
(c) By a nonexocytotic process
(d) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors

82. Which of these statements is preferable to beta2 receptor stimulants?
A. They are effectively metabolized by COMT and MAO.
B. They produce cardiac stimulation similar in degree as epinephrine
C. A common side effect is tremor.
D. They are effectively administered by the oral route only.

83. A sympathomimetic amine that acts almost exclusively by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve endings is
(a) Ephedrine
(b) Isoprenaline
(c) Dopamine
(d) Tyramine

84. Low doses of adrenaline dilate the Following vascular bed
(a) Cutaneous
(b) Mucosal
(c) Renal
(d) Skeletal muscle

85. Which of these drugs may be employed in the prophylaxis of migraine headache?
A. Ergotamine
B. Metoprolol
C. Ergonovine
D. Mannitol

86. Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except
(a) Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis
(b) Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells
(c) Augmenting glucagons secretion from Pancreatic beta cells
(d) Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization

87. Noradrenaline is administered by
A. Subcutaneous injection
B. Intramuscular injection
C. Slow intravenous infusion
D. All of the above routes

88. Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that
(a) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors
(b) It does not activate adrenergic alpa receptors
(c) It causes pronounced tachycardia
(d) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability

89. Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature
(a) Potency
(b) Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier
(c) Duration of action
(d) Producing both alpa & beta adrenergic effects

90. Continuous exposure of cetecholamine sensitive cells and tissues to adrenergic Agonists causes a progressive diminition In their capacity to respond, This Phenomenon is called as?
(a) Refractoriness
(c) Tachyphylaxis
(b) Desensitization
(d) All of the above

91. While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP
(a) Noradrenaline
(b) Isoprenaline
(c) Mephentermine
(d) Isoxsuprine

92. Vasoconstrictors should not be used in
(a) Neurogenic shock
(b) Haemorrhagic shock
(c) Secondary shock
(d) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia

93. Guanethidine inhibits
A. Synthesis of transmitter
B. Metabolism of transmitter
C. Release of transmitter
D. Displacement of transmitter from axonal

94. In what way is methyldopa different from clonidine?
A. presence of an active metabolite
B. reduces peripheral vascular resistance
C. may cause withdrawal symptoms if stopped abruptly
D. may produce sedation

95. Which of the following is a selective alpha1 receptor antagonist that is effective for hypertension?
A. Ergotamine
B. Prazosin
C. Phentolamine
D. Tamsulosin

96. Which of the following is true of sildenafil
(a) It enhances sexul enjoyment in normal men
(b) It delays ejaculation
(c) It is indicated only for treatment of erectile Dysfunction in men
(d) All above

97. Which of the following is an expected effect of pilocarpine on the eye?
A. relaxation of the smooth muscles of the iris sphincter
B. increased drainage of aqueous humor
C. paralysis of the ciliary muscle
D. increased activity of the ciliary epithelium/body

98. Hyperuricemia and hypercalcemia are side effects of the following diuretics?
A. furosemide
B. spironolactone
C. hydrochlorothiazide
D. Amiloride

99. Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline
(a) Bronchodilation
(b) Lipolysis
(c) Muscle tremor
(d) Mydriasis

100. Phenylephrine
(a) Mimics transmitter at post-synaptic Receptors
(b) Displaces transmitter from axonal terminal
(c) Inhibits synthesis of transmitter terminal
(d) None of the above