PHARMACOLOGY
51. The alkaloid which inhibits the cholinesterase undergoes hydrolysis in solution to give methyl carbamic acid and eseroline is:
a. Scopolamine
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Neostigmine
d. Physostigmine
52. A natural product derivative developed as an antimalarial is
a. Artemether
b. Paludrine
c. Pyrimethamine
d. Halofantrine
53. An anticholinesterase which is useful in Alzheimer’s disease is
a. Arecoline
b. Donepezil
c. Isoproterenol
d. Clioquinol
54. Cytosine arabinoside acts on this phase of the cell cycle
a. G1 b. G2
c. M d. S
55. A person taking organic nitrate has to avoid one of the following drugs as it can cause severe hypotension
a. Aspirin
b. Cholestyramine
c. Warfarin
d. Sildenafil
56. To avoid lithium toxicity, a patient using lithium carbonate for mood disorders should not be prescribed
a. Acetazolamide
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Mannitol
d. Propranolol
57. A selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used as an antidepressant is
a. Venlafaxine
b. Selegiline
c. Phenelzine
d. Amoxapine
58. A patient receiving Digoxin for CCF is found to have elevated serum cholesterol. Which hypolipidemic agent should not be prescribed?
a. Clofibrate
b. Cholestyramine
c. Lovastatin
d. Niacin
59. Famotidine acts as
a. H1 — histamine antagonist
b. H2 — histamine antagonist
c. Proton pump inhibitor
d. H1 agonist
60. Warfarin interacts with this antiasthmatic drug and increases prothrombin time
a. Budesonide
b. Zafirlukast
c. Salmeterol
d. Bambuterol
61. The selective COX-2 inhibitor is
a. Ketorolac
b. Rofecoxib
c. Indomethacin
d. Naproxen
62. HMG-Co a reductase, a key enzyme in the pathway, catalyzes
a. Side chain cleavage in the conversion of cholesterol to steroid hormones
b. The reduction of the thio-ester group to an alcohol in mevalonate biosynthesis.
c. The reduction of the hydroxyl group of mevalonate to Vitamin D.
d. Steroid condensation reaction in the biosynthesis of bile acids.
63. The inhibition of HMG-C0A Reductase is a strategy used in the treatment of
a. Familia hypercholesterolemia
b. Vitamin K deficiency
c. Inflammation in the joints
d. Hepatic parenchymal disease
64. Tenoposide is used in the management of
a. Candidiasis
b. Trypanosomiasis
c. Cardiac arrhythmia
d. Acute leukemia in children
65. Opioids have all actions excluded
a. Analgesic
b. Antitussive
c. Antidiarrhoeal
d. Anti-inflammatory
66. The metabolite of spironolactone is
a. Aldosterone
b. Canrenone
c. Corticosterone
d. Pregnenolone
67. The risk of digitalis toxicity is significantly increased by concomitant administration of
a. Triamterene
b. Lidocaine
c. Captopril
d. Hydrochlorothiazide
68. An agent used in Prinzmetal angina has spasmolytic action which increases coronary blood flow
a. Nitroglycerine
b. Nifedipine
c. Timolol
d. Isosorbide mononitrate
69. Decreased risk of atherosclerosis is associated with increase in
a. VLDL
b. LDL
c. HDL
d. IDL
70. Which of the following drug is having weak disulfiram like action?
a. Dacarbazine
b. Procarbazine
c. Methotrexate
d. Hydroxy urea
71. Which of these is pyrimidine antagonist?
A. 6-mercapto purine
b. Methotrexate
C. 5-Flurouracil
D. 6-Thioguanine
72. Carbidopa is used because
a. It crosses BBB
b. It inhibits MAO-A
c. It inhibits MAO-B
d. It inhibits aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
73. The unwanted effect of L-DOPA is
a. Dementia
b. Hypertension
c. Dyskinesia
d. Heapatotoxic
74. The thrombolytic agent used is
a. Heparin
b. Warfarin
c. Anistreplase
d. Vitamin K
75. Mechanism of action of aspirin is
a. Inhibits vitamin K metabolism
b. Antithrombin activity
c. Inhibits heparin metabolism
d. Inhibits platelet aggregation
76. Mechanism of anti-thrombotic agent is
a. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
b. Inhibits plate function
c. Activation of clotting factors
d. Vitamin K agonist
77. All of the following produce a significant decrease in peripheral resistance except:
A. hydralazine
B. β-blockers
c. ACE inhibitors
d. Clonidine
78. Which one of the following drugs acts at central presynaptic α2 receptors?
a. Minoxidil
b. Verapamil
c. Clonidine
d. Enalapril
79. Which one of the following antihypertensives is most likely to cause reflex tachycardia?
a. Propranolol
b. Prazosin
c. Hydralazine
d. Captopril
80. From the list of antihypertensive drugs below select the one most likely to lower blood sugar.
a. Prazosin
b. Propranolol
c. Captopril
d. Hydrochlorthiazide
81. Which of these drugs should not be given to a pregnant, hypertensive woman?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide
b. Propranolol
C. α-Methyldopa
d. Lisinopril
82. Which one of the following adverse effects is associated with nitroglycerin?
a. Throbbing headache
b. Bradycardia
c. Sexual dysfunction
d. Anemia
83. All of the following mechanisms of action correctly match a drug EXCEPT:
a. Quinidine: Blocks Na+ channels
b. Bretylium: Blocks K+ channels
c. Verapamil Blocks Ca ++ channels
d. Procainamide: Blocks K + channels
84. Which of these statements is INCORRECT?
a. Lidocaine must be given parenterally.
b. Lidocaine is used mainly for atrial arrhythmias.
c. Procainamide is associated with a reversible lupus phenomenon.
d. Quinidine is active orally.
85. Which of the following most directly describes the mechanism of action of digitalis?
a. Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase
b. Decreases intraceliular sodium concentration
c. Stimulates production of cAMP
d. Decreases release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
86. Which one of the following drugs ,would be the most appropriate single drug therapy for mild congestive heart failure?
a. A cardiac glycoside such as digoxin
b. A α-adrenergic agonist such as norepinephrine
c. A diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide
d. An ACE inhibitor, such as captopril
87. Which one of the following statements concerning congestive head failure is correct?
a. Digitoxin is more widely used than digoxin because it has a shorter half-life
b. Serum levels of digoxin can be decreased by quinidine
c. Loop diuretics are used in patients with renal insufficiency
d. Digoxin is eliminated primarily in the bile
88. Which one of the following aggravates a digitalis-induced arrhythmia?
a. Decreased serum calcium
b. Decreasing head rate with propranolol
c. Decreased serum sodium
d. Decreased serum potassium
89. Which of the following is selective MAO A inhibitor?
a. Tranylcypromine
b. Meclobemide
c. Selegiline
d. Entacapone
90. Which statement is false about phenytoin?
a. Can cause gingival hyperplasia may cause the gums to grow over teeth, particularly in children.
b. Can cause Megaloblastic anemia occur because the drug interferes with vitamin B12 metabolism
c. It can cause osteomalaceia and hirsuitism
d. Can cause severe memory impairments
91. The drug choice for opioid withdrawal
a. Meperidine
b. Methadone
c. Naltrexone
d. Naloxone
92. One of the following drugs has 1, 4- dihydropyridine structure, act as calcium channel antagonist
a. Captopril
b. Verapamil
c. Diltiazem
d. Nifedipine
93. Opioids does not exerts these action?
a. Anti-inflammatory
b. Analgesic
c. Antitussive
d. Anti-diarrheal
94. One of these is selective β2 stimulant
a. Caffeine
b. Salbutamol
c. Propranolol
d. Atenolol
95. Metoprolol is sometimes preferred to propranolol because
a. It has both α and β adrenergic blockade
b. It has both vasodilatory properties
c. It is selective β2 antagonist
d. It has selective β1 selective antagonist and does not enter in brain
96. Ultra-short acting barbiturates have brief duration of action due to
a. High degree of binding to plasma proteins
b. Low lipid solubility resulting in minimal concentration in the brain
c. Metabolism is slow in liver
d. Rapid rate of redistribution from brain due to its high liposolubility
97. One of the following actions of opioids is mediated via kappa receptors
a. Euphoria
b. Physical dependence
c. Spinal analgesia
d. Cerebral vascular dilation
98. Chose the correct class IV antiarrhythmic that is primarily indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
a. Mexiletine
b. Diltiazem
c. Nifedipine
d. Propranolol
99. Choose the drug that often causes tachycardia when given in regular doses
a. Verapamil
b. Guanethidine
c. Propranolol
d. Isosorbide dinitrate
100. Choose the appropriate therapeutic use of imipramine
a. Insomnia
b. Epilepsy
c. Bed wetting in children
d. Mania
