Pharmacology MCQs with Answers (Part:- 2)
51. All of the following statements concerning angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are true, EXCEPT:
a) They act by inhibiting the ability of renin to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
b) Enalapril is a prodrug that is converted to an active metabolite
c) They reduce secretion of aldosterone
d) They can produce hyperkalemia in combination with a potassium-sparing diuretic
52. All of the following effects of ACE inhibitors may be useful in treating heart failure, EXCEPT:
a) They decrease afterload
b) They increase circulating catecholamine levels
c) They reduce reactive myocardial hypertrophy
d) They increase myocardial beta-1 adrenergic receptor density
53. All of the following statements concerning the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in the treatment of heart failure are true, EXCEPT:
a) They improve hemodynamics by decreasing afterload
b) They can increase plasma cholesterol levels
c) They may slow the progression of heart failure by preventing myocardial and vascular remodeling
d) They are effective first-line agents in the treatment of chronic heart failure
54. This drug is Class IA antiarrhythmic drug
a) Sotalol
b) Propranolol
c) Verapamil
d) Quinidine
55. This drug is Class IB antiarrhythmic drug
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
56. This drug is Class IC antiarrhythmic drug:
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
57. This drug is Class II antiarrhythmic drug:
a) Flecainide
b) Propranolol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
58. This drug is Class III antiarrhythmic drug
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
59. This drug prolongs repolarization:
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
60. This drug is Class IV antiarrhythmic drug:
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
61. This drug is used in treating supraventricular tachycardias:
a) Digoxin
b) Dobutamine
c) Amrinone
d) Dopamine
62. Drug is associated with Torsades de pointes.
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
63. This drug has beta-adrenergic blocking activity:
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
64. This drug is useful in terminating atrial but not ventricular tachycardias:
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
65. This is a drug of choice for acute treatment of ventricular tachycardias:
a) Flecainide
b) Sotalol
c) Lidocaine
d) Verapamil
66. The calcium channel blockers have direct negative inotropic effects because they reduce the inward movement of calcium during the action potential. This consideration is:
a) True
b) False
67. Common unwanted effects of the dihydropyridines are due to vasodilation. It’s:
a) True
b) False
68. Verapamil is a more potent vasodilator than nifedipine. This statement is:
a) True
b) False
69. This drug is contraindicated in patients with moderate to severe heart failure:
a) Nifedipine
b) Verapamil
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
70. This drug is an effective bronchodilator:
a) Nifedipine b) Verapamil
c) Both d) None
71. This drug is used intravenously to terminate supraventricular tachycardias:
a) Nifedipine b) Verapamil
c) Both d) None
72. This drug has a little or no direct effect on chronotropy and dromotropy at normal doses
a) Nifedipine
b) Diltiazem
c) Verapamil
d) All of the above
73. Verapamil has a significant effect on automaticity in the SA node. It’s:
a) True
b) False
74. This drug acts by inhibiting slow calcium channels in the SA and AV nodes:
a) Quinidine
b) Adenosine
c) Flecainide
d) Diltiazem
75. All of the following statements regarding verapamil are true, EXCEPT:
a) It blocks L-type calcium channels
b) It increases heart rate
c) It relaxes coronary artery smooth muscle
d) It depresses cardiac contractility
76. All of the following calcium channel blockers are useful in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias, EXCEPT:
a) Bepridil
b) Diltiazem
c) Verapamil
d) Nifedipine
77. All of the following are common adverse effects of calcium channel blockers EXCEPT:
a) Skeletal muscle weakness
b) Dizziness
c) Headache
d) Flushing
78. Tick the adverse reactions characteristic for lidocaine:
a) Agranulocytosis, leucopenia
b) Extrapyramidal disorders
c) Hypotension, paresthesias, convulsions
d) Bronchospasm, dyspepsia
79. Duration of nitroglycerin action (sublingual) is:
A) 10-30 minutes
b) 6-8 hours
c) 3-5 minutes
D) 1.5-2 hours
80. Which of the following antianginal agents is a calcium channel blocker?
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Dipyridamole
c) Minoxidil
d) Nifedipine
81. Which of the following cardiovascular system effects refers to a calcium channel blocker?
a) The reduction of peripheral vascular resistance
b) The reduction of cardiac contractility and, in some cases, cardiac output
c) Relief of coronary artery spasm
d) All of the above
82. Main clinical use of calcium channel blockers is:
a) Angina pectoris
b) Hypertension
c) Supraventricular tachyarrhythmias
d) All of the above
83. Which of the following antianginal agents is a myotropic coronary dilator:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
84. Which of the following antianginal agents is a beta-adrenoceptor-blocking drug:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
85. The following agents are cardioselective beta1-adrenoceptor-blocking drugs labeled for use in angina, EXCEPT:
a) Metoprolol
b) Talinolol
c) Atenolol
d) Propranolol
86. Which of the following antianginal agents refers to reflex coronary dilators:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
87. Which of the following antianginal agents is the specific bradycardic drug:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Alinidine
88. Which of the following antianginal agents is a potassium channel opener:
a) Dipyridamole
b) Validol
c) Atenolol
d) Minoxidil
89. This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS:
a) Labetalol
b) Clonidine
c) Enalapril
d) Nifedipine
90. All of the following are central acting antihypertensive drugs, EXCEPT:
a) Methyldopa
b) Clonidine
c) Moxonidine
d) Minoxidil
91. A ganglioblocking drug for hypertension treatment is:
a) Hydralazine
b) Tubocurarine
c) Trimethaphan
d) Metoprolol
92. Pick out the sympatholythic drug:
a) Labetalol
b) Prazosin
c) Guanethidine
d) Clonidine
93. Tick the drug with nonselective betaadrenoblocking activity:
a) Atenolol
b) Propranolol
c) Metoprolol
d) Nebivolol
94. Choose the selective blocker of beta-1 adrenoreceptors:
a) Labetalol
b) Prazosin
c) Atenolol
d) Propranolol
95. Pick out the drug – an alpha and beta adrenoreceptors blocker:
a) Labetalol
b) Verapamil
c) Nifedipine
d) Metoprolol
96. This drug inhibits the angiotensinconverting enzyme:
a) Captopril
b) Enalapril
c) Ramipril
d) All of the above
97. This drug is a directly acting vasodilator:
a) Labetalol
b) Clonidine
c) Enalapril
d) Nifedipine
98. Pick out the diuretic agent for hypertension treatment:
a) Losartan
b) Dichlothiazide
c) Captopril
d) Prazosin
99. This drug blocks alpha-1 adrenergic receptors:
a) Prazosin
b) Clonidine
c) Enalapril
d) Nifedipine
100. This drug activates alpha-2 adrenergic receptors:
a) Labetalol
b) Phentolamine
c) Clonidine
d) Enalapril
