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pharmacyTopic wise MCQs

Pharmacology MCQs with Answers (Part:- 5)

PHARMACOLOGY

1. The Immunosuppressive agent is?
a) Corticosteroids
b) Cyclosporine
c) Tacrolimus (FK 506)
d) All of the above

2. Side effect of cyclosporine A ?
a) Tremor
b) Anorexia
c) Chills
d) Myalgia

3. Mechanism of action of cyclosporine A?
a) Complement-mediated cytolysis of T lymphocytes
b) ADCC towards T lymphocytes
c) Inhibits calcineurin
d) Compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodies

4. Mechanism of action of I.V. IgG preparation is?
a) Inhibits CD3 receptor
b) Inhibits calcineurin
c) Complement-mediated cytolysis of T lymphocytes
d) Compete for Fc receptors with autoantibodies

5. Half-life of I.V. IgG preparation is?
a) 25-35 minutes
b) 19 hours
c) 4 – 16 hours
d) 21 days

6. Cytotoxic agents are the following EXCEPT
a) Azathioprine
b) Cyclosporine
c) Leflunomide
d) Cyclophosphamide

7. Mechanism of action of sirolimus (rapamycin) is
a) Anti-idiotype antibodies against autoantibodies
b) Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface
c) Inhibits calcineurin
d) ADCC towards T lymphocytes

8. Monoclonal antibodies is
a) Trastuzumab
b) Rituximab
c) OKT-3
d) All of the above

9. Glucocorticoids are hormonal steroids:
a) Having an important effect on intermediary metabolism, cardiovascular function, growth, and immunity
b) Having principally salt-retaining activity
c) Having androgenic or estrogenic activity
d) All of the above

10. Inflammation is:
a) A localized protective reaction of a tissue to irritation, injury, or infection, characterized by pain, redness, swelling, and sometimes loss of function
b) A deficiency of the normal immune response.
c) A reaction resulting from an immune reaction produced by an individual’s white blood cells or antibodies acting on the body’s own tissues or extracellular proteins.
d) All of the above

11. A chronic, proliferative phase, of inflammation is characterized by
a) Local vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability (phase of damage)
b) Infiltration of leucocytes and phagocytic cells (phase of exudation)
c) Tissue degeneration and fibrosis occurrence (phase of proliferation)
d) All of the above

12. Correct statements about cortisol (hydrocortisone) include all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Cortisol is synthesized from cholesterol
b) ACTH governs cortisol secretion
c) Most cortisol is inactivated in the liver
d) The half-life of cortisol in the circulations is normally about 60-90 hours.

13. Most common site of metastasis in breast cancer is
a) Lung b) liver
c) Bone d) brain

14. Which of the following glucocorticoids is a long-acting drug?
a) Prednisolon
b) Dexamethasone
c) Triamcinolone
d) All of the above

15. Anti-inflammatory effect of glucocorticoids is caused by
a) Reducing the prostaglandin and leukotriene which results from inhibition of phospholipase A
b) Reducing macrophages migration into the site of inflammation
c) Decreasing capillary permeability
d) All of the above

16. Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs?
a) Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
b) Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
c) Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
d) Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic

17. The following statements concerning aspirin are true, EXCEPT
a) In contrast to most other NSAIDs, aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX
b) Aspirin interferes with the chemical mediators of the kallikrein system
c) Aspirin inhibits phospholipase A
d) Aspirin inhibits tromboxane A formation

18. Indication for aspirin administration are the following, EXCEPT
a) Inflammatory conditions
b) Decreasing the incidence of transient ischemic attack, unstable angina, coronary artery thrombosis with myocardialinfarction, and thrombosis after coronary artery bypass grafting
c) Relieving severe visceral pain, e.g. myocardial infarction, cancer pain condition, renal or biliary colic
d) Reducing elevated body temperature

19. Serious side effects of metamizole (analgin) include the following:
a) Agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia
b) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)
c) Iatrogenic Cushing’s syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face –moon faces)
d) All of the above

20. Side effects of aspirin include following:
a) Gastric upset (intolerance)
b) Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)
c) Gastric ulcers and upper gastrointestinal bleeding
d) All of the above

21. Which of the following drugs is a 5-lipoxygenase (5-LOG) inhibitor?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Zileuton (Zyflo)
c) Metamizole (Analgin)
d) Diclofenac

22. Which of the following drugs is a thromboxane A2 receptor (TXA2) antagonist?
a) Sulotroban
b) Zileuton (Zyflo)
c) Zafirleukast (Accolate)
d) Diclofenac

23. Half-life of interferon alpha is?
a) 18-24 hours
b) 4-16 hours
c) 25-35 minutes
d) 21 days

24. Antiallergic effect of glucocorticoids is caused by:
a) Suppression of leukocyte migration and stabilizing lysosomal membranes
b) Reverse the capillary permeability associated with histamine release
c) Suppression of the immune response by inhibiting antibody synthesis
d) All of the above

25. Indication for interferon alpha administration is:
a) Prophylaxis of sensitization by Rh antigen
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Kaposi’s sarcoma
d) Chronic granulomatous disease

26. Mechanism of action of levamisole
a) Inhibits CD3 receptor
b) Complement-mediated cytolysis of T lymphocytes
c) Substitution for patient’s defiecient immunoglobulins
d) Increase the number of T-cells

27. Dermatitis, diarrhoea and dementia are characteristics of
a) Dry beriberi
b) Pyridoxine deficiency
c) Scurvy
d) Pellagra

28. Pellagra is:
a) A disease caused by a deficiency of niacin in the diet and characterized by skin eruptions, digestive andnervous system disturbances, and eventual mental deterioration
b) Inflammation of several nerves at one time caused by a deficiency of thiamin, marked by paralysis, pain, and musclewasting. Also called multiple neuritis or polyneuritis
c) A severe form of anemia most often affecting elderly adults, caused by a failure of the stomach to absorb vitamin B and characterized by abnormally large red blood cells, gastrointestinal disturbances, and lesions of the spinal cord.Also called pernicious anemia, malignant anemia
d) All of the above

29. Loosening of teeth, gingivitis and hemorrhage occur in the deficiency of
a) Vitamin K
b) Vitamin В
c) Vitamin B
d) Vitamin C

30. Mega doses of which vitamin are some time beneficial viral respiratory infections
a) Vitamin С
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin K
d) Vitamin D

31. Which of the following coenzymes is of vitamin origin?
a) Riboxine
b) Coenzyme Q
c) Piridixal-5-phosphate
d) Lipoic acid

32. Which of the following antivitamins prevent a vitamin A from exerting its typical metabolic effects?
a) Lipooxidase
b) Oral contraceptives
c) Antibiotics
d) All of the above

33. Which of the following antienzymes is a beta-lactamase inhibitor?
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Sulbactam
c) Tazobactam
d) All of the above

34. Which of the following antienzymes is a proteolysis inhibitor?
a) Contrical
b) Sulbactam
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram

35. Which of the following antienzymes is a fibrinolysis inhibitor?
a) Clavulanic acid
b) Sulbactam
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram

36. Which of the following antienzymes is a cholinesterase inhibitor?
a) Physostigmine
b) Selegiline
c) Aminocaproic acid
d) Disulfiram

37. Which of the following enzymes improves GIT functions (Replacement therapy):
a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze

38. Which of the following enzymes has fibrinolytic activity?
a) Pepsin
b) Urokinase
c) L-asparaginase
d) Lydaze

39. The drug can promote sodium loss in patients with low (e.g., 40 ml/min) glomerular filtration rates:
a) Furosemide (Lasix)
b) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

40. The drug should never be administered to patients taking potassium supplements
a) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
b) Amiloride (Midamor)
c) Furosemide (Lasix)
d) Neither of the above

41. The drug decreases calcium excretion in urine:
a) Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDiuril)
b) Amiloride (Midamor)
c) Furosemide (Lasix)
d) Acetazolamide (Diamox)

42. The drug acts by competitively blocking the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

43. The drug acts at the proximal tubule
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

44. The drug acts in the distal convoluted tubule
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

45. The drug acts by competitively blocking the NaCl cotransporter:
a) Loop diuretics
b) Thiazide diuretics
c) Potassium-sparing diuretics
d) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

46. The drug can cause ototoxicity:
a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

47. The drug is one of the most potent diuretics
a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

48. The drug is usually given in combination with a thiazide diuretic
a) Acetazolamide (Diamox)
b) Furosemide (Lasix)
c) Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuril)
d) Amiloride (Midamor)

49. The drug is the least potent diuretic
a) Osmotic diuretics
b) Loop diuretics
c) Thiazide diuretics
d) Potassium-sparing diuretics

50. Action mechanism of alkylating agents?
a) Producing carbonium ions altering protein structure
b) Producing carbonium ions altering DNA structure
c) Structural antagonism against purine and pyrimidine
d) Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA synthesis

Answers

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