1. Mechanism of action of PAM / pralidoxime :
a. Reactivation of cholinesterase
b. Synthesis of cholinesterase
c. Inhibition of cholinesterase
d. None of the above
2. Ipratropium bromide is contraindicated in :
a. Urinary retention
b. Asthma
c. Hypertension
d. All of the above
3. Tiotropium is used for :
a. Treating urinary retention
b. Treating ileus
c. Increase salivation
d. Treating asthma
4. Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer ?
a. PGE1 agonist
b. PGE2
agonist
c. PGD agonist
d. PGF2 agonist
5. The following are associated with beta 2 agonist treatment except :
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Detrusor relaxation
d. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles
6. The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning :
a. Atropine
b. Physostigmine
c. Adrenaline
d. Carbachol
7. True statement about clonidine are all except :
a. Increases parasympathetic outflow
b. Decreases sympathetic outflow by blocking central alpha receptor
c. Used in HT
d. Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of clonidine
8. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma :
a. Latanoprost
b. Brimonidine
c. Acetazolamide
d. Dorzolamide
9. Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?
a. Phenylpropanolamine
b. Terfenadine
c. Quinidine
d. Fenfluramine
10. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
a. Atracurium
b. Vecuronium
c. Rocuronium
d. Doxacurium
11. Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
a. Procaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Lignocaine
d. Mepivacaine
12. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
a. Latanoprost
b. Timolol
c. Brimonidine
d. Dorzolamide
13. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
a. Levobunolol
b. Bimatoprost
c. Brinzolamide
d. Brimonidine
14. Misoprostol is a :
a. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
b. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
c. Prostaglandin antagonist
d. Antiprogestin
15. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
a. Norfloxacin
b. Streptomycin
c. Doxycycline
d. Cefotaxime
16. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine ?
a. Propranolol
b. Sumatriptan
c. Domperidone
d. Ergotamine
17. Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility ?
a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Atropine
c. Neostigmine
d. Fentanyl
18. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except :
a. Acute decompensated heart failure
b. Hypotension
c. Hypertension
d. Erectile dysfunction
19. Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :
a. Domperidone
b. Metoclopramide
c. Cisapride
d. Omeprazole
20. All the following are selective beta blockers, except :
a. Atenolol
b. Esmolol
c. Bisoprolol
d. Sotalol
21. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is all except :
a. Propranolol
b. Pindolol
c. Sotalol
d. Oxprenolol
22. All of the following statements are true except :
a. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
b. IV Adrenaline increases systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
c. IV isoproterenol causes no change in systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
d. Dopamine decreases peripheral resistance and improves renal perfusion
23. β blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is :
a. Carvedilol
b. Propranolol
c. Atenolol
d. Acebutalol
24. Which of the following is not given in a patient with pheochromocytoma :
a. Atenolol
b. Prazosin
c. Nitroprusside
d. Metyrosine
25. Diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis is by using:
a. Edrophonium
b. Neostigmine
c. Succinylcholine (SCh)
d. Atropine
26. A patient taking Ketoconazole and Terfenadine both, is prone for :
a. Cardiac arrhythmia
b. Toxicity of ketoconazole
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. All of above
27. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason :
a. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in
relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
b. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure
c. There is a sudden outburst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart
d. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver
28. Neostigmine is a :
a. Primary ammonium compound
b. Secondary ammonium compound
c. Tertiary ammonium compound
d. Quartenary ammonium compound
29. Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is :
a. Neostigmine
b. Physostigmine
c. Tacrine
d. 4-amino pyridine
30. Selective α1 A – blocker is :
a. Prazosin
b. Terazosin
c. Tamsulosin
d. Indoramine
31. β1 selective agonist is :
a. Terbutaline
b. Albuterol
c. Dobutamine
d. Isoetharine
32. All are classified as reversible anticholinestreases except :
a. Ambenonium
b. Physostigmine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Echothiophate
33. In treatment of cardiac failure, dobutamine acts by all of the following mechanisms except :
a. α receptors agonism
b. β adrenergic receptors agonism
c. Dopamine receptor agonism
d. Increasing force of contraction
34. Most commonly postural hypotension is seen with:
a. Prazosin
b. Nifedipine
c. Atenolol
d. ACE inhibitors
35. Clonidine is a :
a. α1 selective agonist
b. α2 selective agonist
c. α1 selective antagonist
d. α2 selective antagonist
36. Shortest acting neuromuscular blocking agent is
a. Pancuronium
b. Atracurium
c. Mivacurium
d. Vecuronium
37. Which of the following is not an inotropic drugs :
a. Dopamine
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amrinone
d. Amiodarone
38. Actions of atropine are all except :
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Tachycardia
c. Mydriasis
d. CNS stimulation
39. Which of the following has the shortest plasma half-life :
a. Propranolol
b. Esmolol
c. Timolol
d. Atenolol
40. Which of the following does not cause bradycardia:
a. Propranolol
b. Hydralazine
c. Clonidine
d. Reserpine
41. Which of the following is not a catecholamine:
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Phenylephrine
42. All of the following statements are true except :
a. PG’s and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid
b. COX I is an inducible enzyme
c. COX II is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation
d. Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle constriction
43. In low doses aspirin acts on :
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Thromboxane A2
c. PGI2
d. Lipoxygenase
44. Not used in erectile dysfunction ?
a. Apomorphine
b. Taldanafil
c. Phenylephrine d. Sildenafil
45. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistamanic ?
a. Loratidine
b. Acrivastatine
c. Cyclizine
46. Long acting beta agonist ?
a. Terbutaline
b. Salmeterol
c. Ciclesonide
d. Ipratropium
47. Used for the treatment of migraine, the tripatans act through :
a. 5HT1A
b. 5HT1B
c. 5HT1F
d. 5HT3
48. Which of the following is not sued as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect :
a. Antipsychotics
b. Antihistaminics
c. Antidepressant
d. Lithium
49. Impotence is caused by which of the following drugs :
a. Angiotensin antagonists
b. CCB
c. β blockers
d. ACE inhibitors
50. Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation?
a. Aspirin
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Piroxicam
d. Ibuprofen
Answers
- 1. a. Reactivation …
- 2. a. Urinary …
- 3. d. Treating …
- 4. a. PGE1 …
- 5. a. Hyperkalemia
- 6. a. Atropine
- 7. d. Prazosin …
- 8. c. Acetazolamide
- 9. a. Phenylpro …
- 10. d. Doxacurium
- 11. a. Procaine
- 12. c. Brimonidine
- 13. c. Brinzolamide
- 14. a. Prostaglandin …
- 15. b. Streptomycin
- 16. a. Propranolol
- 17. c. Neostigmine
- 18. d. Erectile …
- 19. c. Cisapride
- 20. d. Sotalol
- 21. c. Sotalol
- 22. c. IV isoproterenol …
- 23. a. Carvedilol
- 24. a. Atenolol
- 25. a. Edrophonium
- 26. a. Cardiac …
- 27. a. Lidocaine …
- 28. d. Quarternary …
- 29. b. Physostigmine
- 30. c. Tamsulosin
- 31. c. Dobutamine
- 32. d. Echothiophate
- 33. c. Dopamine …
- 34. a. Prazosin
- 35. b. α2 selective …
- 36. c. Mivacurium
- 37. d. Amiodarone
- 38. a. Bronchocon …
- 39. b. Esmolol
- 40. b. Hydralazine
- 41. d. Phenylephrine
- 42. b. COX I is an …
- 43. b. Thromboxane A2
- 44. c. Phenylephrine
- 45. c. Cyclizine
- 46. b. Salmeterol
- 47. b. 5HT – 1B
- 48. b. Antihistaminics
- 49. c. β blockers
- 50. c. Piroxicam
