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pharmacyTopic wise MCQs

Pharmacology of ANS, PNS & Autacoids MCQs with Answers

1. Mechanism of action of PAM / pralidoxime :
a. Reactivation of cholinesterase
b. Synthesis of cholinesterase
c. Inhibition of cholinesterase
d. None of the above

2. Ipratropium bromide is contraindicated in :
a. Urinary retention
b. Asthma
c. Hypertension
d. All of the above

3. Tiotropium is used for :
a. Treating urinary retention
b. Treating ileus
c. Increase salivation
d. Treating asthma

4. Which of the following is beneficial in NSAID induced gastric ulcer ?
a. PGE1 agonist
b. PGE2
c. PGD agonist
d. PGF2 agonist

5. The following are associated with beta 2 agonist treatment except :
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Detrusor relaxation
d. Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles

6. The drug of choice for mushroom poisoning :
a. Atropine
b. Physostigmine
c. Adrenaline
d. Carbachol

7. True statement about clonidine are all except :
a. Increases parasympathetic outflow
b. Decreases sympathetic outflow by blocking central alpha receptor
c. Used in HT
d. Prazosin is used to antagonize side effects of clonidine

8. Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma :
a. Latanoprost
b. Brimonidine
c. Acetazolamide
d. Dorzolamide

9. Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke?
a. Phenylpropanolamine
b. Terfenadine
c. Quinidine
d. Fenfluramine

10. Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action?
a. Atracurium
b. Vecuronium
c. Rocuronium
d. Doxacurium

11. Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group?
a. Procaine
b. Bupivacaine
c. Lignocaine
d. Mepivacaine

12. Which of the following antiglaucoma medications can cause drowsiness?
a. Latanoprost
b. Timolol
c. Brimonidine
d. Dorzolamide

13. Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides?
a. Levobunolol
b. Bimatoprost
c. Brinzolamide
d. Brimonidine

14. Misoprostol is a :
a. Prostaglandin E1 analogue
b. Prostaglandin E2 analogue
c. Prostaglandin antagonist
d. Antiprogestin

15. Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine?
a. Norfloxacin
b. Streptomycin
c. Doxycycline
d. Cefotaxime

16. Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of migraine ?
a. Propranolol
b. Sumatriptan
c. Domperidone
d. Ergotamine

17. Which one of the following drugs increases gastrointestinal motility ?
a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Atropine
c. Neostigmine
d. Fentanyl

18. Sympathomimetic drugs are useful in the therapy of all of the following conditions except :
a. Acute decompensated heart failure
b. Hypotension
c. Hypertension
d. Erectile dysfunction

19. Drug implicated for prolonging QT interval in a premature baby is :
a. Domperidone
b. Metoclopramide
c. Cisapride
d. Omeprazole

20. All the following are selective beta blockers, except :
a. Atenolol
b. Esmolol
c. Bisoprolol
d. Sotalol

21. Beta blocker that can be used in renal failure is all except :
a. Propranolol
b. Pindolol
c. Sotalol
d. Oxprenolol

22. All of the following statements are true except :
a. IV noradrenaline increases systolic and diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
b. IV Adrenaline increases systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
c. IV isoproterenol causes no change in systolic, decreases diastolic BP and causes tachycardia
d. Dopamine decreases peripheral resistance and improves renal perfusion

23. β blocker with peripheral vasodilator action is :
a. Carvedilol
b. Propranolol
c. Atenolol
d. Acebutalol

24. Which of the following is not given in a patient with pheochromocytoma :
a. Atenolol
b. Prazosin

c. Nitroprusside
d. Metyrosine

25. Diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis is by using:
a. Edrophonium
b. Neostigmine
c. Succinylcholine (SCh)
d. Atropine

26. A patient taking Ketoconazole and Terfenadine both, is prone for :
a. Cardiac arrhythmia
b. Toxicity of ketoconazole
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. All of above

27. Cardiac or central nervous system toxicity may result when standard lidocaine doses are administered to patients with circulatory failure. This may be due to the following reason :
a. Lidocaine concentration are initially higher in
relatively well perfused tissues such as brain and heart
b. Histamine receptors in brain and heart gets suddenly activated in circulatory failure
c. There is a sudden outburst of release of adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine in brain and heart
d. Lidocaine is converted into a toxic metabolite due to its longer stay in liver

28. Neostigmine is a :
a. Primary ammonium compound
b. Secondary ammonium compound
c. Tertiary ammonium compound
d. Quartenary ammonium compound

29. Drug of choice in Acute central anticholinergic syndrome is :
a. Neostigmine
b. Physostigmine
c. Tacrine
d. 4-amino pyridine

30. Selective α1 A – blocker is :
a. Prazosin
b. Terazosin
c. Tamsulosin
d. Indoramine

31. β1 selective agonist is :
a. Terbutaline
b. Albuterol
c. Dobutamine
d. Isoetharine

32. All are classified as reversible anticholinestreases except :
a. Ambenonium
b. Physostigmine
c. Pyridostigmine
d. Echothiophate

33. In treatment of cardiac failure, dobutamine acts by all of the following mechanisms except :
a. α receptors agonism
b. β adrenergic receptors agonism
c. Dopamine receptor agonism
d. Increasing force of contraction

34. Most commonly postural hypotension is seen with:
a. Prazosin
b. Nifedipine
c. Atenolol
d. ACE inhibitors

35. Clonidine is a :
a. α1 selective agonist
b. α2 selective agonist
c. α1 selective antagonist
d. α2 selective antagonist

36. Shortest acting neuromuscular blocking agent is
a. Pancuronium
b. Atracurium
c. Mivacurium
d. Vecuronium

37. Which of the following is not an inotropic drugs :
a. Dopamine
b. Isoprenaline
c. Amrinone
d. Amiodarone

38. Actions of atropine are all except :
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Tachycardia
c. Mydriasis
d. CNS stimulation

39. Which of the following has the shortest plasma half-life :
a. Propranolol
b. Esmolol
c. Timolol
d. Atenolol

40. Which of the following does not cause bradycardia:
a. Propranolol
b. Hydralazine

c. Clonidine
d. Reserpine

41. Which of the following is not a catecholamine:
a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Phenylephrine

42. All of the following statements are true except :
a. PG’s and leukotrienes are derived from arachidonic acid
b. COX I is an inducible enzyme
c. COX II is induced by cytokines at sites of inflammation
d. Leukotrienes cause smooth muscle constriction

43. In low doses aspirin acts on :
a. Cyclooxygenase
b. Thromboxane A2
c. PGI2
d. Lipoxygenase

44. Not used in erectile dysfunction ?
a. Apomorphine
b. Taldanafil
c. Phenylephrine d. Sildenafil

45. Which is not a 2nd generation antihistamanic ?
a. Loratidine
b. Acrivastatine
c. Cyclizine

46. Long acting beta agonist ?
a. Terbutaline
b. Salmeterol
c. Ciclesonide
d. Ipratropium

47. Used for the treatment of migraine, the tripatans act through :
a. 5HT1A
b. 5HT1B
c. 5HT1F
d. 5HT3

48. Which of the following is not sued as a sedative,but causes sedation as a side effect :
a. Antipsychotics
b. Antihistaminics
c. Antidepressant
d. Lithium

49. Impotence is caused by which of the following drugs :
a. Angiotensin antagonists
b. CCB
c. β blockers
d. ACE inhibitors

50. Which NSAID undergoes enterohepatic circulation?
a. Aspirin
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Piroxicam
d. Ibuprofen


  • 1. a. Reactivation …
  • 2. a. Urinary …
  • 3. d. Treating …
  • 4. a. PGE1 …
  • 5. a. Hyperkalemia
  • 6. a. Atropine
  • 7. d. Prazosin …
  • 8. c. Acetazolamide
  • 9. a. Phenylpro …
  • 10. d. Doxacurium
  • 11. a. Procaine
  • 12. c. Brimonidine
  • 13. c. Brinzolamide
  • 14. a. Prostaglandin …
  • 15. b. Streptomycin
  • 16. a. Propranolol
  • 17. c. Neostigmine
  • 18. d. Erectile …
  • 19. c. Cisapride
  • 20. d. Sotalol
  • 21. c. Sotalol
  • 22. c. IV isoproterenol …
  • 23. a. Carvedilol
  • 24. a. Atenolol
  • 25. a. Edrophonium
  • 26. a. Cardiac …
  • 27. a. Lidocaine …
  • 28. d. Quarternary …
  • 29. b. Physostigmine
  • 30. c. Tamsulosin
  • 31. c. Dobutamine
  • 32. d. Echothiophate
  • 33. c. Dopamine …
  • 34. a. Prazosin
  • 35. b. α2 selective …
  • 36. c. Mivacurium
  • 37. d. Amiodarone
  • 38. a. Bronchocon …
  • 39. b. Esmolol
  • 40. b. Hydralazine
  • 41. d. Phenylephrine
  • 42. b. COX I is an …
  • 43. b. Thromboxane A2
  • 44. c. Phenylephrine
  • 45. c. Cyclizine
  • 46. b. Salmeterol
  • 47. b. 5HT – 1B
  • 48. b. Antihistaminics
  • 49. c. β blockers
  • 50. c. Piroxicam