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PRE-GPAT Preparation MCQs (Part:- 10) with Answers

by Fenee Patel0569

PRE-GPAT MOCK TEST

Q.1 which one of the following is not an endergonic reaction

  1. a) Muscular contractions
  2. b) Nervous excitation
  3. c) Active transport
  4. d) None

Q.2 Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes formation of fumarate, Malonate can combine with the enzyme forming as EnzI at the same site, which type of inhibition is carried out

  1. a) Competitive or substrate analog
  2. b) None competitive reversible
  3. c) Irreversible
  4. d) none

Q.3 the repiratory chain contains following enzymes in mitochondria except

  1. a) NAD dehydrogenases
  2. b) Flavoprotein dehydrogenase
  3. c) Xanthine dehydrogenase
  4. d) Cytochromes

Q.4 In microbiological assay of bacitracin IP, the test organism is used

  1. a) Staphylococcus Aureus
  2. b) Staphylococcus Epidermis
  3. c) Micrococcus Luteus
  4. d) Bacillus Pumilus

Q.5 Among the immunizing agents listed below one of them is orally administered.

  1. a) Tetanus Toxoid
  2. b) Rabies Vaccine
  3. c) Poliomyelties Vaccine
  4. d) Mumps Virus Vaccine

Q.6 one of the organisms mentioned below is used as a biological indicator in I.P. for ethylene oxide sterlization.Choose the correct one.

  1. a) Bacillus stearothermophilus
  2. b) Spores of Bacillus subtilis
  3. c) Bacillus pumilus
  4. d) Spores of Bacillus cereus

Q.7 The most common causative organism of bacterial pneumoniae

  1. a) Staphylococcus aureus
  2. b) Escherichia coli
  3. c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
  4. d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Q.8 A microscopic examination of a culture isolate revealed spherical bodies with a Smooth outline growing in long chains. Identify the micro organism

  1. a) Staphylococcus aureus
  2. b) Streptococcus pyogenes
  3. c) Rhizopus stolonifer
  4. d) Bacillus subtilis

Q.9 Cystic fibrosis is clinical test used for diagnosis of

  1. a) Hemoglobin level
  2. b) D.N.A.
  3. c) Blood sugar level
  4. d) Level of TSH

Q.10 what is the composition of B.C.G. vaccines?
a) Living attenuated Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Experimentally killed and freeze dried mycobacterium tubrcle
c) Antibodies obtained from sera of tuberculosis patient
d) All of these

Q.11 which is causative organism of Jaundice?

  1. a) Toxoplasma Gondi
  2. b) Hepatitis-A-Virus
  3. c) Retro Virus
  4. d) none of these

Q.12 what test organism is used for microbiological assay of streptomycin

  1. a) Bacillus subtilis
  2. b) Klebsiella pneumoniae
  3. c) both a & b
  4. d) none of these

Q.13 The conversion of Fructose-1, 6-biphosphate to Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is catalysed by

  1. a) Phospho-glycerate kinase
  2. b) Enolase
  3. c) Aldolase
  4. d) Triose phosphate isomerase

Q.14 Glucagon is secreted from
a) Alpha cells of pancreas
b) Beta cells of pancreas
c) Gamma cells of pancreas
d) None of these

Q.15 The metabolic function of Niacin involves the following

  1. a) FMN and FAD
  2. b) NAD and NADH
  3. c) AMP and ATP
  4. d) Retin and retinine

Q.16 1, 25-dihydroxy Cholcalciferol is most potent metabolite of

  1. A) Vitamin A
  2. b) Vitamin D
  3. c) Cholesterol
  4. d) ergosterol

Q.17 Plasmid is a
a) Macromolecule involved in the protein synthesis
b) Circular piece of duplex DNA
c) A hybrid DNA that is formed by joining pieces of DNA
d) Endogenous substance Secreted by one type of cell

Q.18 Lactose intolerance is because of the lack of

  1. a) Acid phosphates
  2. b) Lactate dehydrogenase
  3. c) Galactose-1-phosphate-uridyl Transferase
  4. d) Amylase

Q.19 Synthesis of UREA takes place exclusive in

  1. a) Kidney
  2. b) Liver
  3. c) Gall bladder
  4. d) urinary bladder

Q.20 A term which describes a cofactor that is finally bound to an enzyme

  1. a) Holoenzyme
  2. b) Prosthetic
  3. c) Coenzyme
  4. d) Transferase

Q.21 which of the following equations is valid for standard B-DNA?

  1. a) A +T =G + C
  2. b) A + T = 2(G + C)
  3. c) 2(A + T) = 3(G + C)
  4. d) A + G = T + C

Q.22 Clinical jaundice, typified by yellowing of the tissues is associated with elevated levels of

  1. a) Serum lysozyme
  2. b) serum bilirubin
  3. c) serum creatinine
  4. d) SGOT

Q.23 Ultraviolet radiation may cause the formation of

  1. a) Purine dimer
  2. b) Pyrimidine dimer
  3. c) Nucleotide dimer
  4. d) Nucleoside dimer

Q.24 Gram positive bacteria typically contain
a) Cell walls that lack peptidoglycan
b) Repeating units of arabinogalactan and mycolates in their cell walls
c) Peptidoglycan containing muramic acid and D-aminoacids in their cell walls
d) Cell walls containing predominantly polysaccharides

Q.25 Quaternary structure in protein molecules refers to the
a) Arrangement of multiple domains in a single polypeptide chain
b) Specific arrangement of multiple subunits in multi-subunits proteins
c) Formation of molten globules
d) Proteins folding in single subunits proteins

Q.26 a blood sample is treated with alkaline phosphotungstic acid to form tungsten blue, which is estimated colorimetrically to give a positive reaction. The sample contains

  1. a) Protein
  2. b) Serum creatinine
  3. c) Serum phenylalanine
  4. d) Uric acid

Q.27 Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is involved in the biosynthesis of the following

  1. a) Serotonin
  2. b) Threonine
  3. c) pyruvate
  4. d) methionine

Q.28 A peptide hormone which inhibits bone resorption and given as nasal spray is

  1. a) Cortisol
  2. b) Alendronate
  3. c) Calcitonin
  4. d) Calcitriol

Q.29 Intermediates in the biosynthesis of cholesterol are
a) Mevalonic acid and isopentenyl pyrophosphate
b) Mevalonic acid and aldosterone
c) Isoprenaline and aldosterone
d) Isopranaline and isopentenyl pyrophosphate

Q.30 A given Gram-positive bacterium is differentiated from Gram-negative by Gram staining. This is because its cell wall contains

  1. a) Lysozyme
  2. b) Teichoic acid
  3. c) Membrane proteins
  4. d) Lipid A

Q.31 Microorganism that has long, branched, multinuclear filaments called ‘hyphae’ is

  1. a) Corynebacterium diphthriae
  2. b) Streptococcus pyogenes
  3. c) Staphylococcus aureus
  4. d) Streptomyces viridochroma

Q.32 Polypeptide cytokines important in the inflammatory cascade are known as

  1. a) Interleukins
  2. b) Pyrogens
  3. c) Prostaglandins
  4. d) none of these

Q.33 Prokaryotic transcription is controlled by

  1. a) Signal peptidase
  2. b) Sigma factor
  3. c) Proteasome complex
  4. d) Photolyase

Q.34 Photolyase is enzyme that is useful as in one of the following processes

  1. a) Post translational modification
  2. b) DNA repair
  3. c) Protein degradation
  4. d) Control of prokaryotic transcription

Q.35 The Substrate ultimately binds covalently to enzyme is termed as

  1. a) Competitive inhibitor
  2. b) Non-competitive inhibitors
  3. c) Uncompetitive inhibitor
  4. d) Suicide inhibitors

Q.36 the Krabbe’s disease result in the deficiency of the enzyme

  1. a) Galactocerebrosidase
  2. b) hexosaminidase
  3. c) Sphingomylase
  4. d) Tyrosinase

Q.37 Hybridoma technology is widely used for producing

  1. a) Callus culture
  2. b) organ culture
  3. c) monoclonal antibodies
  4. d) attenuated micro organism

Q.38 ‘Gene therapy’ refers to the process of
a) Identifying disease causing genes and activating them for therapeutic benefits
b) Increasing the expression levels of the set of genes involved in a given disease in affected cells through selective modulating agents
c) Transfer of new genetic material to the cells of an individual for therapeutic benefit
d) Removal of the proteins corresponding to the disease causing genes from the cells of the affected individual

Q.39 Hyperuricamia is associated with the abnormal metabolism of

  1. a) Pyrimidine
  2. b) purine
  3. c) riboflavin
  4. d) thiamine

Q.40 Neutral thioaliphatic amino acid found in proteins is

  1. a) Methionine
  2. b) Valine
  3. c) Threonine
  4. d) Leucine

Q.41 what is the name the enzyme that is tissue plasminogen activator & produced by recombinant DNA technology

  1. a) Sutilains
  2. b) Urokinase
  3. c) Alteplase
  4. d) Bromelain

Q.42 which one of the following purification methods is used for pyrogen free water?

  1. a) Entraipment preventative distillation
  2. b) Simple distillation
  3. c) Reverse osmosis
  4. d) Ion-exchange

Q.43 Reverse Osmosis is method of water purification in which
a) CFU value & endotoxin content usually increase
b) Pyrogen free water is produced
c) Endotoxins & Pyrogens are not removed
d) Small organic molecules (mol. Weight approximately <200) are not removed

Q.44 Bradikinin is peptide hormone that

  1. a) Modulates extensive Vasodilation
  2. b) Inhibits extensive Vasodilation
  3. c) Stimulates synthesis of components
  4. d) responds to suckling reflex and estradiol

Q.45 which one of the following is helper hormone to corticotrophin-releasing hormone?

  1. a) Vasopressin
  2. b) Oxytoxin
  3. c) Bradykinin
  4. d) Prolactin

Q.46 a common organism that causes meningitis belongs to the genus

  1. a) Candida
  2. b) Neisseria
  3. c) Pseudomonas
  4. d) Clostridium

Q.47 Oxytoxin is…….and causes uterine and smooth muscle contraction.

  1. a) A steroidal hormone
  2. b) serotonin derivative
  3. c) a cyclic octapeptide
  4. d) a lipoprotein

Q.48 Melanocyte Stimulating hormones (MSH) increases deposition of melanin, brown pigment, by melanocytes of skin is also known as

  1. a) Pitressin
  2. b) Pitosin
  3. c) Intermedin
  4. d) HCG

Q.49 Measurement of HCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) in urine is the basis of

  1. a) Breast cancer
  2. b) Pregnancy test
  3. c) Ovarian Cancer
  4. d) Cervical Cancer

Q.50 the biogenic origin of methyl substitution at N1, N3 and N7 in caffeine molecule is

  1. a) S-adenosyl methionine
  2. b) S-methyl cysteine
  3. c) S-methyl cystine
  4. d) Adenosyl mono PO4

Answers

screenshot 20210822 2111242847715622276904657 PRE-GPAT Preparation MCQs (Part:- 10) with Answers