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PRE-GPAT Preparation MCQs (Part:- 14) with Answers

PRE-GPAT MOCK TEST

Q.1 The microorganisms that can grow best at temperature 250 to 450 C are known as

  1. a) Psychrophils
  2. b) Mesophils
  3. c) Microaerophils
  4. d) Acidophil

Q.2 What is the name of drug given in structure

  1. a) Nifedipine
  2. b) Felodipine
  3. c) Amlodipine
  4. d) Nicardipine

Q. 3 Alprostadil is used as

  1. a) Antiulcer
  2. b) Abortifacient
  3. c) Impotency
  4. d) Bronchodilator

Q.4 Ranitidine hydrochloride IP is assayed by

  1. a) Spectrophotometry
  2. b) Fluorescence
  3. c) HPLC
  4. d) None aqueous titration

Q.5 Tablets that are more than 80 mg and less than 250 mg comply with the limit of Percentage deviation for uniformity of weight

  1. a) ±15
  2. b) ±10
  3. c) ± 7.5
  4. d) ±5

Q.6 These are pieces of untrimmed bark. They can be distinguished from genuine drug Cinnamon by the presence of abundant cork cells and by poor yield to 90 % alcohol

  1. a) Jungle cinnamon
  2. b) Cinnamon chips
  3. c) Saigon cinnamon
  4. d) Java cinnamon

Q.7 1-Cyclopropyl-6-fluoro-1,4-dihydro-4oxo-7-(1-piperazinyl)-3-quinolinecarboxilic acid is IUPAC name of

  1. a) Norfloxacin
  2. b) Gatifloxacin
  3. c) Sparfloxacin
  4. d) Ciprofloxacin

Q.8 the characteristic odor of bulbs of Allium sativum is attributed to

  1. a) Alkyl or alkenyl disulphides
  2. b) furostanol glycosides
  3. c) Heterogeneous sulphated polysaccharides
  4. d) Quercetin glycosides

Q.9 What is disintegration time for dispersible and soluble tablets according to IP

  1. a) three minutes
  2. b) ten minutes
  3. c) 30 minutes
  4. d) 60 minutes

Q.10 The process refers to whereby tissue callus or cells may be induced to for shooths, roots and complete plants

  1. a) Somatic hybridization
  2. b) Embryogenesis
  3. c) Organogenesis
  4. d) none of these

Q.11 A super disintegrant in tablet formulation is

  1. a) Croscarmellose
  2. b) starch
  3. c) PVP
  4. d) Mg-Aluminium silicate

Q.12 Bloom strength is defined as the load in grams required to push a standard plunger 4 mm into the gel. What is the value of Bloom strength for soft gelatin capsule?

  1. a) 200-250 mg
  2. b) 150 mg
  3. c) 100 mg
  4. d) 300-400 mg

Q.13 Magnesium stearate is used as

  1. a) Binder
  2. b) Disintegrant
  3. c) Diluent
  4. d) Lubricant

Q.14 Polysorbates are known as

  1. a) Tweens
  2. b) Spans
  3. c) both a & b
  4. d) none of these

Q.15 Calculate the number of mEq of NaCl in one liter of a 0.9% w/v solution.

  1. a) 307.2 MEq/l
  2. b) 153.8 mEq /l
  3. c) 456.8mEq/l
  4. d) 142.5 mEq

Q.16 Which the enzyme is not involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine.

  1. a) Tyrosine hydroxylase
  2. b) DOPA decarboxylase
  3. c) β- hydroxylase
  4. d) COMT

Q.17 Given below are some absorption frequencies in a IR spectrum. Indicate the appropriate functional group for the aromatic hydrocarbon

  1. a) 3500 – 3300 cm-1
  2. b) 3030 – 3010 cm-1
  3. c) 1750 cm-1
  4. d) 2100 – 2250 cm-1

Q.18 Scopolamine on hydrolysis with barium hydrochloride gives:

  1. a) Tropanol and tropic acid
  2. b) Scopine and tropic acid
  3. c) Ecgonine and benzoic acid
  4. d) Benzyl ecgonine and methanol

Q.19 A powder all the particles of which pass through a sieve with a nominal aperture of 125 μm and not more than 40 % by weight pass through a sieve with a nominal aperture of 45μm is termed as

  1. a) Very fine powder
  2. b) fine powder
  3. c) Moderately fine powder
  4. d) Coarse powder

Q.20 In which dissolution apparatus IP basket is used?

  1. a) Apparatus I
  2. b) Apparatus II
  3. c) Apparatus III
  4. d) none of these

Q.21 To penetrate to the peripheral regions, aerosols require a size less than 5 or 6 μm, with less than 2 μm being preferable for

  1. a) GIT
  2. b) Nasal delivery
  3. c) skin delivery
  4. d) Alveolar deposition

Q.22 Anisocytic stomata are found in the leaves of:

  1. a) lobelia
  2. b) Urginea maritime
  3. c) Cassia acutifolia
  4. d) Atropa belladonna

Q.23 Particle size in suspension is determined by

  1. a) Andreasen Pipette
  2. b) Monsanto tester
  3. c) Ultrasonifier
  4. d) Viscometer

Q.24 Standards for disinfectant fluids comes under the schedule

  1. a) P
  2. b) V
  3. c) N
  4. d) O

Q.25 It is pigment found in the oil of seeds of cotton Gossypium herbaceum is used as

  1. a) Antidepressant
  2. b) antispermatoganic
  3. c) Antispasmodic
  4. d) Antiepeleptic

Q.26 What is the pH of empty stomach?

  • a) 5.0 – 6.0
  • b) 6.8 – 7.5
  • c) 1.5 – 3.0
  • d) 3.0 – 5.0

Q.27 2-chloro-10-[3-(dimethylamino) propyl] phenothiazine is used as

  1. a) Antimalarial
  2. b) Bactericidal
  3. c) Tranquilizer
  4. d) Relief of anxiety and tension

Q.28 Rifampicin is isolated from

  1. a) Streptomyces griseus
  2. b) Bacillus polymyxa
  3. c) Streptomyces mediterranei
  4. d) Streptomyces nodosus

Q.29 –CH2-CH2-SO2-CH2-CH3 is the side chain at position 1, of the followings

  1. a) Metronidazole
  2. b) Tinidazole
  3. c) Ornidazole
  4. d) Pindolol

Q.30 Application for grant of license to sell, stock or distribute the drug is given in

  1. a) Form 8
  2. b) Form 12
  3. c) Form 19
  4. d) Form 20

Q.31 p-(di-2-chloroethyl) amino phenyl butyric acid is used as

  1. a) Antineoplastic
  2. b) Anthelmintic
  3. c) Antimalarial
  4. d) Antifungal

Q.32 A radioactive substance has half-life of 12 hours. How much time is required to decay the nuclide upto 60 % of its parent compound?

  1. a) 3.27 hours
  2. b) 6.72 hours
  3. c) 8.85 hours
  4. d) 10.58 hours

Q.33 Status asthmaticus is best described by which of the following statements?
a) Status asthmaticus is well-controlled asthma
b) Status asthmaticus is a life threatening exacerbation of asthma
c) Status asthmaticus is always resolves without drug treatment
d) None of these

Q.34 Nitrogen mustard with the broadest spectrum of anti-tumor activity in its class is

  1. a) Cyclophosphamide
  2. b) Mechlorethamine
  3. c) Chlorambucil
  4. d) Melphalan

Q.35 Which of the following is the major side effect of cyclosporine therapy in organ transplant rejection?

  1. a) Hypoglycemia
  2. b) Hypokalmia
  3. c) Hypotension
  4. d) Nephrotoxicity

Q.36 A patient with ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) deficiency is being treated in a gene therapy clinical trial. The gene therapy approach for this disease is primarily esigned to

  1. a) Replace the enzyme ornithine trancarbamylase
  2. b) decrease the accumulation of ammonia
  3. c) Target to protooncogene
  4. d) none of the

Q.37 Which herb is most frequently used to treat migraine headache?

  1. a) Kava
  2. b) Hawthorn
  3. c) Feverfew
  4. d) Ginseng

Q.38 Select the herb most frequently used to treat fatigue.

  1. a) Ginseng
  2. b) Saw palmetto
  3. c) Uva Ursi
  4. d) Hoarse chestnut

Q.39 Which one is di phenyl butyl piperidine derivative atypical antipsychotic agent?

  1. a) Molindone
  2. b) Haloperidol
  3. c) Pimozide
  4. d) Thioridazine

Q.40 What is the name of the given structure of drug?

  1. a) Triamicinolone
  2. b) Dexamethasone
  3. c) Betamethasone
  4. d) Beclomethasone

Q.41When the concentration of bilirubin (0.5-1mg/dl) in serum is elevated more than 2.5 mg/dl, this indicate clinical symptoms of

  1. a) Hemolytic jaundice
  2. b) Obstructive jaundice
  3. c) Hepatitis
  4. d) None

Q.42 Deficiency of galactocereberosidase is Krabbe’s disease, catalyses formation of

  1. a) Glucose + Cereberoside
  2. b) lactose + spingosine
  3. c) Galactose + Cereberoside
  4. d) fructose + Spingosine

Q.43 What will be formed in the given reaction

  1. a) Pyremethamine
  2. b) Minoxidil
  3. b) Trimethoprim
  4. d) Cycloguanil

Q.44 Camptothicin is obtained from Camptothica acuminata and used in cancer contains which of the following heterocyclic nucleus?

  1. a) Pyridine
  2. b) Indole
  3. c) quinoline
  4. d) Isoquinoline

Q.45 When Theophylline is treated with nitric acid what will be the end product?

  1. a) Methyl alloxane and methyl urea
  2. b) dimethyl xanthine and urea
  3. c) Dimethyl alloxane and urea
  4. d) methyl xanthine and methyl urea

Q.46 Which of the following drugs contain 3-[4-(2 hydroxy ethyl) piperazine 1-yl] propyl side chain at 10-position of phenothiazine ring?

  1. a) Chlorpromazine
  2. b) Prochlorperazine
  3. c) Thioridazine
  4. d) Perphenazine

Q.47 Two wires of dissimilar metals, Bismuth & antimony are joined head to tail in

  1. a) Bolometer
  2. b) Pyroelectric detector
  3. c) Thermocouple detector
  4. d) Photomultiplier

Q.48 In UV spectroscopy if the polarity of solvent is increased the will be observations for α β-Unsaturated carbonyl compounds?
a) π->π* moves to longer wavelength
b) n->Ï€* moves to shorter wavelength
c) Both a & b
d) π->π* moves to shorter wavelength

Q.49 What signals are produced from three protons for their nearby protons in NMR?

  1. a) Singlet
  2. b) Doublet
  3. c) Triplet
  4. d) Quartet

Q.50 In Mass spectroscopy, molecular weight of the substance is determined by

  1. a) Parent ion peak
  2. b) Daughter ion peak
  3. c) Metastable ion peak
  4. d) none of these

Answers

screenshot 20210822 2127501970968123978556580 PRE-GPAT Preparation MCQs (Part:- 14) with Answers