Remix education
pharmacyTopic wise MCQs

PRE-GPAT Preparation MCQs (Part:- 15) with Answers


Q.51 Capillary columns have an internal diameter of 1mm or less and are used in gas Chromatography and are constructed of

  1. a) Fused silica (very high purity glass)
  2. b) Diatomaceous earth
  3. c) Calcium carbonate
  4. d) China clay

Q.52 In fluorescence spectroscopy which one group does not quench the fluorescence?

  1. a) –NHCOCH3
  2. b) -NH2
  3. c) -NO2
  4. d) –Br

Q.53 When an atom is excited by removal of an electron from inner energy level, it may return to its normal state by transfffering an electron from some outer level to the vacant level. The energy of this transition appears as

  1. a) α-rays
  2. b) β-rays
  3. c) γ-rays
  4. d) X-rays

Q.54 The quantity of drug required to make a 3% w/v solution in 400 gm of alcohol is (the density of alcohol is 0.801 g/ml)

  1. a) 16.12 g
  2. b) 15.0 g
  3. c) 14.0 g
  4. d) 12.32 g

Q.55 Which one of the following is not acyclic monoterpenoids?

  1. a) Geraniol
  2. b) Farnesol
  3. c) Citral
  4. d) Ocimine

Q.56 A silver wire is coated with silver chloride by electrolysis or by dipping into the moltton salt for making……………reference electrode.

  1. a) Ag/AgCl electrode
  2. b) Calomal electrode
  3. c) Glass electrode
  4. d) Hydrogen electrode

Q.57 Change in emf versus titration volume is studied in

  1. a) Conductometry
  2. b) Voltametry
  3. c) Polarography
  4. d) Potentiometry

Q.58 In polarography half wave potential is point where

  1. a) i = id
  2. b) i = 2id
  3. c) i = id/2
  4. d) i = id/4

Q.59 Specific conductance (k) is given by the formula

  1. a) 1/R × A/d
  2. b) 1/R × d/A
  3. c) RA/d
  4. d) Rd/A

Q.60 When a methyl group is attached to functions of increasing electronegitivity then value of Chemical shift (δ) will

  1. a) Increase
  2. b) decrease
  3. c) remain unchanged
  4. d) none of these

Q.61 Calculate the molar absorptivity, ε, for a solution containing 2.0 mmmol dm-3 (2.0 × 10-3 moles per liter) of solute when the absorbance of a 1 cm cell was 4.5.

  1. a) 2100
  2. b) 2750
  3. c) 4200
  4. d) 2250

Q.62 Which of the following virus is not related to Picornaviridae family?

  1. a) Rabies virus
  2. b) Rhinovirus
  3. b) Poliovirus
  4. d) Coxsackie virus

Q.63 Which one of the following is selective estrogen receptor modulator?

  1. a) Toremifene
  2. b) Flutamide
  3. c) Stanazol
  4. d) Betamethasone

Q.64 Abnormal metabolism of purine causes

  1. a) Hypourecemia
  2. b) Hyperurecemia
  3. c) hyponatrimia
  4. d) hypouremia

Q.65 Succulent growth from helium covering the entire seeds is characteristic of

  1. a) Colchicum
  2. b) Cardamom
  3. c) Nutmeg
  4. d) Castor

Q.66 Auxin or naphthalene acetic acid is growth hormone used as

  1. a) Cell differentiation & elongation
  2. b) cell division
  3. c) growth inhibitor
  4. d) none

Q.67 Kaolin is chemically

  1. a) Hydrated magnesium silicate
  2. b) hydrated aluminium silicate
  3. c) Hydrated calcium silicate
  4. d) hydrated magnesium sulphate

Q.68 Morphine is treated with –CH3I in aqueous KOH gives (-) codeine, which is not soluble in alkali; codeine can be oxidized with chromic acid to acid to codeinone. Which group is responsible for oxidation?

  1. a) Primary –OH
  2. b) Phenolic –OH
  3. c) Secondary –OH
  4. d) Tertiary –OH

Q.69 A proteolytic enzyme obtained from cultures of Bacillus subtilis used to dissolve necrotic tissue in burns, bed sores & ulcerated wounds

  1. a) Sutilains
  2. b) Urokinase
  3. c) Alteplase
  4. d) Bromelain

Q.70 Mixture of equal parts of chromic acid & nitric acid is used for

  1. a) Staining cellulose walls blue
  2. b) removal of fixed oils & fats
  3. c) Staining lignified walls pink or red
  4. d) disintegration of scelerenchymatous tissue

Q.71 Plant part from which mucilage of Feenugreek is formed

  1. a) Cell wall of seed epidermis
  2. b) Endodermis
  3. c) Epidermis of leaf
  4. d) Special secretory cells

Q.72 Liquid dispersion of methyl cellulose shows which type of flow?

  1. a) Plastic flow
  2. b) Pseodoplastic flow
  3. c) Dilatant flow
  4. d) Newtonian flow

Q.73 Interparticular force is related to

  1. a) Griffin
  2. b) Sorensen
  3. c) DLSO theory
  4. d) Ostwald ripening

Q.74 Which test organism is used for microbiological assay Doxicycline IP

  1. a) Staphylococcus aureus
  2. b) Micrococcus luteus
  3. b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  4. d) Sccharomyces cerevisiae

Q.75 The heart of synthesis is nucleophilic attack on carbonyl carbon by an slide to form betain which often spontaneously undergoes elimination to yield alkene is known as

  1. a) Perkin condensation
  2. b) Kolbe reaction
  3. c) Fries rearrangement
  4. d) Wittig reaction

Q.76 which of the following are likely to be good targets for designing antihypertensive?

  1. a) AT1 Imidazole receptor
  2. b) α2-adrenergic receptor
  3. c) Calcium channel protein
  4. d) all

Q.77 Antibodies and antigens can attach to solid-phase supports and still maintain their full immunological capabilities is principle in which diagnostic test?

  1. a) Shick test
  2. b) Widal test
  3. c) SGPT test
  4. d) ELISA

Q.78 Vasodilation by activating ATP sensitive K+ channel is mechanism of which of the following anti-hypertensive drug?

  1. a) Captopril
  2. b) Amlodipine
  3. c) Diazoxide
  4. d) Atenolol

Q.79 Neutral aliphatic amino acid found in proteins is

  1. a) Methionine
  2. b) Valine
  3. c) Cysteine
  4. d) Tyrosine

Q.80 In the synthesis of chlorpheniramine, which of the followings is used?

  1. a) 4-chloro benzyl cyanide
  2. b) 2-Chloro pyridine
  3. c) a & b
  4. d) 2-chloro benzene

Q.81 Which one is the unofficial standard for uncoated tablets as per IP is

  1. a) Dissolution test
  2. b) friability
  3. c) disintegration time
  4. d) uniformity of the weight

Q.82 All of the following statement regarding the effects of propranolol are true except.

  1. a) Reduce myocardial contractility
  2. b) Reduce pacemaker activity
  3. c) Reduce slope of phase-4 depolarization
  4. d) Bronchodilation

Q.83 All the following statement regarding effects of nitrates are true except.

  1. a) Mainly reduce preload
  2. b) Mainly reduce afterload
  3. c) Produce dry persistent cough
  4. d) Contraindicated in bilateral stenosis of renal artery

Q.84 Headache due to vasodilation is one of accompanying symptoms of all of the following drugs except

  1. a) Hydrallazine
  2. b) Amylnitrate
  3. c) Ergotamine
  4. d) Ergometrine

Q.85 All of the following except one are the true for quinidine.
a) Has some alpha-adrenergic property b) Dextro isomers of quinine
c) Antimalarial effect more than quinine d) Bitter and irritant

Q.86 Most effective drug in atrial premature depolarisation is

  1. a) Sotalol
  2. b) Procainamide
  3. c) Bretyleum
  4. d) Propranolol

Q.87 GIT side effects of chloroquine such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and sialorrhea are common; they can be diminished by administering the drug with

  1. a) Water
  2. b) meals and milk
  3. c) Cold drink
  4. d) alcohol

Q.88 Stanozolol is used as anabolic steroid has heterocyclic ring

  1. a) Pyrazole
  2. b) Imidazole
  3. c) Thiazole
  4. d) Oxazole

Q.89 water soluble vitamin which is derived from the sugar

  1. a) Pyridoxine
  2. b) Niacin
  3. c) Thiamine
  4. d) Ascorbic acid

Q.90 Bioassay of the digitalis is carried out by the following method

  1. a) End point bioassay
  2. b) Graphical method
  3. c) Bracketing method
  4. d) None

Q.91 An antiarrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures

  1. a) Phenytoin
  2. b) Liganocaine
  3. c) Bretyleum
  4. d) Amiodarone

Q.92 Which of the following is a not third generation cephalosporins antibiotic?

  1. a) Ceftriaxone
  2. b) Cefotaxime
  3. c) Cefepime
  4. d) Cefpodoxime

Q.93 when Guanethidine & tricyclic antidepressants are coadministered together results in

  1. a) Increase guanthidine activity
  2. b) decrease ganthidine activity
  3. c) No effect on guanthidine activity
  4. d) none of these

Q.94 Imipenem is inactivated by dehydropeptidase in renal tubules and belongs to class

  1. a) Penicillin
  2. b) Cephalosporine
  3. c) Monobactam
  4. d) Carbapenems

Q.95 Somatostatin is produced in the pancreas from γ-cells and acts as

  1. a) Stimulates release of insulin
  2. b) Stimulate release of insulin and glucagon
  3. c) Inhibits release of insulin and glucagon
  4. d) Stimulate release of glucagon

Q.96 Poyene antibiotics

  1. a) Contain lactone ring
  2. b) Have conjugated double bond
  3. c) Lipophilic
  4. d) all

Q.97 1,2-diphenyl-4-{2-(phenylsulfinyl)ethyl}-3,5-pyrazolidinedione is chemical name of

  1. a) Pyridoxime
  2. b) Sulfinpyrazone
  3. c) Sulfapyrizine
  4. d) Phenylbutazone

Q.98 One of the H atoms of the amino group of norepinephrine substituted by –CH(CH3)2

  1. a) Forms metoproterenol
  2. b) forms salbutamol
  3. c) forms terbutiline
  4. d) forms isoproterenol

Q.99 Chloroguanide is

  1. a) A prodrug
  2. b) metabolited to cycloguanil
  3. c) Biguanide
  4. d) all of these

Q.100 Demeclocycline is

  1. a) 6-demethyl chlorotetracycline
  2. b) Chlorocycline
  3. c) 6-demethyl tetracycline
  4. d) None


screenshot 20210822 213922 012139427167811475708 PRE-GPAT Preparation MCQs (Part:- 15) with Answers